CCNA 3 Final

14
Dec

Ccna 3 Exploration Version4 Final Exam 12-2009

Posted by: admin

1Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands would be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?

interface vlan 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
interface vlan 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown

*** interface fastethernet 0/0
no shutdown
interface fastethernet 0/0.2
encapsulation dot1q 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
interface fastethernet 0/0.3
encapsulation dot1q 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0

interface vlan 2
switchport mode trunk dot1q
interface vlan 3
switchport mode trunk dot11

interface fastethernet 0/0
mode trunk dot1q 2 3
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0

2.Refer to the graphic. If the switches are new and have been cabled as shown, which switch will become the root bridge?
*** SC
CE
JB
JP
JN
cannot be determined from the information given

3
A switch is operating in VTP client mode. What is true about the operations that can be performed by the switch?
VLANs that are created are not included in advertisements.
*** It can only adopt VLAN changes advertised from a VTP server.
It advertises topology changes out all trunk ports.
It can modify existing VLANs, but can not create new ones.
It can create and modify VLANs, but can not delete existing ones.

4
Why would a network administrator choose to enable authentication for OSPF exchanges? (Choose two.)
*** to prevent routing information from being falsified
to reduce OSPF information exchange overhead
to assure that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or IGRP updates
to encrypt routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing
*** to ensure that routing information comes from a valid source

5
A network administrator asked an assistant to remove several VLANs from a switch. When the assistant entered in the no vlan 1 command an error was received. What was the cause of the error?
VLANs can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from the VLAN assignment.
VLANs can only be deleted by the user that created them.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its duties.
*** VLAN1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted.
The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur.

6
Employees of XYZ Company connect their laptop computers to the office LAN using Ethernet ports. The Cisco switches used in the company network are configured with port security. At which layer of the three-layer design model do these switches operate?
physical
distribution
data link
***access
core

7

Refer to the graphic. What will be the result of DR elections in the network presented in the graphic using OSPF? (Choose three.)
RTC will be DR of the 10.5.0.0/24 network.
*** RTD will be DR of the 10.5.0.0/24 network.
RTA will be DR of the 10.4.0.0/24 network.
*** RTD will be DR of the 10.4.0.0/24 network.
*** RTB will be DR of the 10.7.0.0/24 network.
RTD will be DR of the 10.7.0.0/24 network.

8
Which of the following statements is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
All VTP hello packets are routed through VLAN 1 interfaces.
*** Changes made to the network can be communicated to all switches dynamically.

9
Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)
*** RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.
RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface.
The router must be configured with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised.
*** A network host address and subnet mask must be applied to the newly activated interface.
*** The routing protocol must be activated with the router rip and version 2 commands.
RIP v2 must be configured on the other enterprise routers with an entry for the newly added network.

10
Which layer of the hierarchical three-layer design model combines traffic from multiple IDFs?
access
backbone
*** distribution
core

11
A company has been assigned three Class C addresses and requires the use of supernetting in its addressing scheme. Which routing protocol could be used to configure the company routers to support supernetting? (Choose two.)

*** a classless routing protocol
a classful routing protocol
*** OSPF
IGRP
RIP v1

12

Refer to the graphic. What does the mode of FORWARDING mean in the spanning-tree process?
*** The switch is sending and receiving frames.
The switch is receiving frames, but cannot send frames.
The switch is participating in an election process.
The switch is only receiving BPDUs, not data, and is not sending any type of frames.

13

Refer to the graphic. The network administrator has determined that RTRA needs to be the DR because it is the more powerful router. Which of the following commands would be used to control the election process?
RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RTRA(config-if)# ospf priority 0
*** RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
*** RTRA(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
RTRA(config)# ospf priority 1
RTRA(config)# ip ospf priority 255
RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RTRA(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0

14
Which device provides connectivity between IP routed networks and subnetworks?
switch
bridge
*** router
active hub

15
Which statements describe features of full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three.)
*** allows packets to be received and sent simultaneously by a host
requires a minimum of two wires
*** reduces the number of collisions
allocates between 60 and 80 percent of available bandwidth in both directions
*** allocates 100 percent of the bandwidth in both directions
increases the number of broadcast domains

16

Refer to the graphic. Both routers are configured using RIP v1. Both routers are sending updates about the directly connected routes. R1 can successfully ping the serial interface of R2. The routing table on R1 does not contain any dynamically learned routes from R2, and the routing table on R2 shows no dynamically learned routes from R1. What is the problem?
Subnetting is not supported by RIP v1.
One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.
CIDR is not supported by RIP v1.
*** VLSM is not supported by RIP v1.

17

The network administrator shown in the graphic is connected to Switch3 using a LAN Ethernet connection. The administrator needs to verify configuration settings on the newly installed Switch2. What actions must the administrator take to access Switch2 with a web browser? (Choose three.)
Configure the hostname on Switch2.
*** Activate the HTTP service on Switch2.
Set the management VLAN password.
*** Configure IP addressing parameters on Switch2.
*** Establish host connectivity to Switch2.

18

Refer to the graphic. Router A and C are completely configured and the administrator needs to configure the routing protocol on Router B so that communication occurs throughout the network. Which of the following commands configures routing on Router B?

B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192

B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192 area 0

B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary

*** B(config)# router eigrp 1
*** B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0

19

Refer to the graphic. If the network is running OSPF, which subnetworks can be assigned to the serial links between Router2 and the other routers shown in the diagram?
192.1.1.4/30 and 192.1.1.8/30
192.1.1.32/30 and 192.1.1.160/30
192.1.1.96/30 and 192.1.1.100/30
192.1.1.160/30 and 192.1.1.164/30
*** 192.1.1.192/30 and 192.1.1.196/30

20
Which of the following are attributes of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.)
Periodic updates are sent every 120 seconds to neighboring routers.
Each router sends its entire routing table to neighboring routers.
*** Routers send updates when a change in the network is detected.
*** Link-state protocols converge more rapidly than distance vector protocols.
After convergence, link-state protocols use more bandwidth than distance vector protocols use.
*** Link-state protocols are less prone to routing loops than distance vector protocols.

21

Which command configures the static address shown in the graphic?
Switch1(config)#mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
Switch1(config-if)#mac-address-table entry static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
Switch1(config)#mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet interface 0/4 VLAN 1
*** Switch1(config)#mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 interface fastethernet 0/4 VLAN 1
Switch1(config-if)#mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04

22
The following command was added to a router’s configuration: ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.15.3. What will adding this command accomplish? (Choose two.)
A default route will be created.
*** A static route will be created.
*** Information about the 192.168.20.0 network learned dynamically will be ignored as long as the static route exists.
All packets with an unknown destination address will be forwarded out interface 192.168.20.245.
The route will be added as a RIP route in the routing table.

23

Refer to the graphic. Switch 2 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 2. Switch 3 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 3. Switch 1 is a Cisco 2926G Layer 3 switch that has a route module installed. Switch 1 provides connectivity to the other switches and is used to route between the VLANs. At which layer of the three-layer switch design model does Switch 1 operate?
physical
data link
core
access
network
*** distribution

24

Which command is used to obtain the information presented in the above graphic?
show vlan ifindex
show vlan id
*** show vlan brief
show running-config

25
Refer to the graphic. Two Catalyst switches with ports configured for VLANs 3 and 4 are connected. The hosts on SW-A and SW-B need to communicate with one another. Which of the following commands is used to configure Port 1 on SW-B? Note that SW-B Port 1 used to have a host connected to it before the switch was connected to SW-A.

(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
(config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# vlan 1 trunk
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

*** (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
*** (config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-subif)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

26
How do EIGRP routers actively maintain neighbor relationships?
by the exchange of hello packets with neighboring routers
by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors
by the exchange of neighbor tables with directly attached routers
by comparing known routes to received updates
*** by the exchange of routing tables with directly attached routers

by continuously monitoring the status of the router ports

27
What is the first step in the spanning-tree process?
elect a designated switch
use a router to locate a default gateway
*** elect a root bridge
determine the path cost of each active port on the switch

28

Refer to the graphic. Which commands would direct outbound traffic from R1 to the ISP and inbound traffic from the ISP to network 200.1.1.0?

R1(config)# ip route 144.1.1.0 255.255.255.192 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 0. 0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0

*** R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
*** ISP(config)# ip route 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1

R1(config)# ip route 144.1.1.0 255.255.255.192 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1

29
Which switching method increases latency and reliability more than any other method?

cut-through
fast-forward
fragment-free
*** store-and-forward

30

Consider the networks shown in the graphic. Which of the following is the correct configuration for Router B if OSPF is being used as the routing protocol?

B(config)# router ospf 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

B(config)# router ospf 99
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 255.255.255.224 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.248 area 0

*** B(config)# router ospf 1
*** B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
*** B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

31
What does a constant amber SYSTEM LED indicate on a Catalyst switch?

The switch is going through POST.
The switch is in the process of initializing ports.
The switch has failed POST.
*** The switch has passed POST and is working properly.

32

Refer to the graphic. What is the first parameter used to determine which switch is selected as the root bridge in the spanning-tree process?

highest Layer 2 address
highest priority number
highest path cost
lowest Layer 2 address
*** lowest priority number
lowest path cost

33
A network administrator is having problems with excessive collisions on the corporate network. If the network currently uses hubs, what is the most cost effective way to reduce collisions?

add additional hubs
*** replace hubs with switches
replace hubs with access points
add a router to every hub segment

34

One part of the network shown in the graphic uses IGRP and another part uses EIGRP. Which statement is true about this network?

IP traffic will not be routable from network 192.168.1.0 to network 10.1.1.0.

The autonomous system number in the IGRP network must be converted to an EIGRP autonomous system number.

*** The route to network 192.168.1.0 will be tagged as external by the EIGRP routers.

The IGRP router will classify routes learned from the EIGRP routers as internal.

The IGRP router will not detect EIGRP routers.

EIGRP is not backward compatible and the IGRP routes will not be detected.

35
Which of the following features do RIPv1 and RIPv2 have in common? (Choose three.)

*** hop count as a metric
classless routing
*** use split horizon
*** maximum hop count is 15
broadcast updates
no authentication

36
When configuring the networks that need to be advertised on a router using EIGRP, which of the following can be configured on the router? (Choose three.)

*** the network number
subnet mask

*** wildcard mask
process number
area ID
*** autonomous system number

37

Refer to the graphic. The host on VLAN 2 cannot communicate with the host on VLAN 3. Which of the following could be the problem ｂａｓｅd on the output of the show interface fastethernet 0/1 command from the switch?

The switch port 1 is not set to access mode.
*** The router interface connected to switch port 1 is shut down.
The router is not configured for trunking.
The switch port is not configured for full duplex or a speed of 100 Mbps.

38

Refer to the graphic above. The network has stabilized and SW-F has been elected root bridge of the STP tree. Network traffic indicates that SW-A would be a better selection for the root bridge. How can the network administrator accomplish this task?

change the bridge priority of SW-F to a lower value
change the bridge priority of SW-F to a higher value
*** change the bridge priority of SW-A to a lower value
change the bridge priority of SW-A to a higher value

39

Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands is used to configure switch port 2 for the host on VLAN 2?

*** (config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
*** (config-if)# switchport mode access
*** (config-if)# switchport access vlan 2

(config)# interface vlan 2
(config-subif)# switchport mode access 2

(config)# interface vlan 2
(config-subif)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
(config-if)# vlan 2

40
Which of the following statements are true about routers that are running EIGRP? (Choose three.)

*** They can support multiple routed protocols.
They can support only link-state protocols.
They send their entire routing tables to neighboring routers.
*** They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.
They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.
*** They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.

41

A network administrator located at the East site needs to check the configuration of a switch located at the Corporate site. The show hosts command is entered on the East router but does not produce any output. Which command can be used to gain access to the Corporate LAN switch assuming the switch is assigned the IP address 172.16.15.5/24?

dial Corporate 172.16.15.5
line vty 0 4
telnet
telnet Corporate
*** telnet 172.16.15.5

42

What is an advantage of building a network such as the one shown in the graphic?

*** provides multiple paths for connectivity in the event of link failure
provides alternate routes when spanning tree has a problem
provides alternate network routes when the Spanning Tree Protocol is converging
provides concurrent paths for faster data transfers

43

What type of connectivity (refer to point A in the graphic) is required between SW1 and SW2? Note that SW1 has VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 configured and SW2 has VLANs 5, 6, 7, and 8 configured. Also, the computers on the same VLAN need the ability to communicate with one another.

access
channel
interVLAN
intraVLAN
*** trunk

44

Refer to the graphic and the following configurations from the routers. Router A is not receiving any OSPF routes from the other routers. ｂａｓｅd on the Router A and Router B configurations, what is the problem?

A# show running-config
–output omitted–
interface Fastethernet 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.65 255.255.255.192
interface Serial 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.255.252
clockrate 64000
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0

B# show running-config
–output omitted–
interface Fastethernet 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.129 255.255.255.192
interface Serial0/0
ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.255.252
interface Serial0/1
ip address 192.168.10.5 255.255.255.252
clockrate 56000
router ospf 2
network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 area 0

*** duplicate IP address

mismatched OSPF process IDs

mismatched OSPF timers

mismatched clock rates

45

Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B are running EIGRP and Router C is running IGRP. Which of the following is necessary for Router C to automatically see routes from Routers A and B?

Routers B and C must use the same autonomous system number, but Router A can use a different autonomous system number.
*** Routers A, B, and C must all use the same autonomous system number.
Routers B and C must both use the redistribute igrp as_number command.
No commands are necessary. EIGRP routes are always seen by IGRP routers.

46
Which of the following is true about Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)

eliminates physical loops in network topologies
*** eliminates logical loops in network topologies
can only be used in networks where routers are installed
*** can only be used in networks where switches are incorporated into the design
can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used
47
A company with the address 192.168.3.0 needs an address scheme that supports ten networks with a maximum of seven hosts per segment. The network administrator wants to use VLSM for the most efficient use of addresses. What is a valid address to assign to one of the LAN links?

192.168.3.192
*** 192.168.3.209
192.168.3.223
192.168.3.225
192.168.3.235

48
Which of the following commands can be used to configure the default management VLAN on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown

*** (config)# interface vlan 1
*** (config-subif)# ip address 10.0.0.3 255.255.255.0
*** (config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface management vlan
(config-subif)# ip address 10.0.0.3 255.255.255.0
(config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# switchport mode vlan 1
(config-if)# no shutdown

49
When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
when a router has more than three active interfaces
*** when a router has discontiguous networks attached
when a router has less than five active interfaces

50

Consider the network shown in the graphic. Which of the following IP addresses would be valid for a company that is leasing a single Class C network address and using VLSM for maximum efficiency?

200.1.1.64 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.128 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.176 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.192 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.196 /30 for the second pair of serial links

200.1.1.0 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.80 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.96 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.128 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.132 /30 for the second pair of serial links

*** 200.1.1.64 /26 for the 50 users
*** 200.1.1.128 /27 for the 25 users
*** 200.1.1.160 /28 for the 10 users
*** 200.1.1.176 /30 for one pair of serial links
*** 200.1.1.180 /30 for the second pair of serial links

200.1.1.0 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.64 /26 for the 25 users
200.1.1.128 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.192 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.192 /30 for the second pair of serial links
source : ccnabooksource.blogspot.com

1 Comment

CCNA 3 Final, CCNA Exploration 3

25
Nov

CCNA 3 Final

Posted by: admin

Only 90%, Help me fix it, comment in this post.
Thank

1

Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem?

The switch must be configured with SSH version 1.

The transport input command must specify Telnet access.

The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access.

The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.
2

Refer to the exhibit. How is port Gi1/1 on SWT-A functioning in the spanning-tree topology?

It is sending and receiving data frames.

It is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.

It is participating in the election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.

It is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
3
Which parameter is a specific frequency at which a wireless access point will operate?

BSS

WEP

SSID

ad hoc

channel
4
What will be the effect of the command S1# copy system:running-config tftp://172.16.2.155/tokyo-config?

The IOS will be copied to the TFTP server.

The configuration file named tokyo-config will overwrite the startup configuration file on S1.

The running configuration file on S1 will be saved via TFTP to a file named tokyo-config.

The contents of NVRAM on S1 will become the startup configuration file on the tokyo switch.
5
What identifier in the BPDU creates a unique BID for a switch?

IP address

MAC address

bridge priority

VLAN ID

port priority
6

Refer to the exhibit. A wireless infrastructure has been established in a company building as shown. The design goal was to allow roaming between the three APs for handheld devices. However, the devices lose connectivity when the users roam. How can this problem be fixed?

Assign different SSIDs to each AP.

Reconfigure all APs to the same channel.

Use the same BSSID address for each AP.

Reposition the APs so that each area of signal strength overlaps the neighbor by at least 10-15%.
7

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections. How should the network administrator change the displayed configuration to satisfy the requirement?

Use SSH version 1.

Reconfigure the RSA key.

Configure SSH on a different line.

Modify the transport input command.
8
How does Spanning Tree Protocol aid network architecture?

allows for redundant links by eliminating loops

provides greater scalability by eliminating collisions

reduces switch processor load by reducing broadcast traffic on trunk links

reduces administrative overhead by sharing VLAN databases between switches across the network
9

Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 3. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?

192.168.1.22 /28

192.168.1.31 /28

192.168.1.32 /28

192.168.1.52 /28

192.168.1.63 /28
10
In setting up a wireless infrastructure network, which device is used to associate a client computer to the network?

an Ethernet switch

a wireless access point

another wireless computer

a hard-wired computer on the network
11
Which statement about STP network diameter is correct?

STP diameters are restricted by convergence times.

Layer 2 root elections should be optimized by adjusting BPDU timers to match network diameter.

Using lower bandwidth connections between switches will allow STP to have a larger network diameter.

Portfast can be used to increase the allowable switched network diameter because it disables the forward delay and maximum age timers.
12

Refer to the exhibit. Hosts that are connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN that are connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?

Introduce a Layer 3 device in the topology.

Configure both switches in VTP transparent mode to allow them to share VLAN information.

Reconfigure the fa0/1 interface on switch SW1 with a static trunk configuration.

Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to FastEthernet 0/1 on SW1 and FastEthernet 0/2 on SW2.
13

Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1?

Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs.

Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.

Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port.

Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network.

Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.
14

Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)

After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.

Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.

The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.

Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.

If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.
15
What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model? (Choose two.)

Each subinterface should be configured with its own IP address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment.

The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch.

The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs.

Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router.

The router should be configured as the VTP server.
16

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is properly configured for router on a stick inter-VLAN routing, but PC1 is unable to ping PC2. What needs to be done to resolve the problem?

Rename VLAN1.

Connect one more port of S1 to R1.

Configure the Fa0/1 port of S1 as a trunk port.

Move the Fa0/0 interface of R1 to another VLAN.
17

Refer to the exhibit. If switch SW1 is configured with the four VLANs as shown in the exhibit, how many physical interfaces are needed on router R1 to configure inter-VLAN routing using subinterfaces?

zero

one

two

four
18

Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?

The router will drop the packet.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
19

Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?

This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.

When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.

Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18.

The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.
20
Which parameter is associated with wireless authentication?

shared key

SSID

ad hoc

channel
21

Refer to the exhibit. Hosts B and C attempt to transmit a frame at the same time, but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?

all hosts that are shown

only hosts B and C

only hosts A, B, and C

only hosts A, B, C, and D

only hosts A, D, E, and F

only hosts D, E, and F
22
What is an efficient and cost effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet LAN?

Connect each PC directly to a router port.

Use access control lists to filter broadcasts from the network.

Divide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches.

Divide the computers into separate workgroups using different physical switches.
23

Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLAN(s) will be allowed on the trunk to SW2 by SW4?

VLAN 20 only

VLAN 10 and VLAN 30

VLAN 10, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30

VLAN 1, VLAN 20 and VLANs 1002 through 1005
24
What is the correct order in which the STP components are chosen?

designated ports, nondesignated ports, root bridge, root ports

nondesignated ports, designated ports, root ports, root bridge

root bridge, root ports, designated ports, nondesignated ports

root ports, root bridge, nondesignated ports, designated ports
25

Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?

hub HB1

switch SW1

router R1

switch SW2

router R2

switch SW4
26

Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)

The switch ports are on different VLANs.

The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.

The hosts are configured on different logical networks.

A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2.

The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.

The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
27
Which statement is correct about STP architecture?

Spanning Tree Protocol will guarantee a loop free Layer 2 topology.

Spanning Tree Protocol guarantees the shortest path to destination networks.

The switch with the highest priority will be assigned the lowest BID in the root election.

The first step in the spanning-tree election process is to determine the root port.

To select designated ports, the spanning-tree algorithm must determine the longest contiguous path from the root bridge.
28
While configuring a new switch, a network administrator configures the switch as an HTTP server. What benefits does this configuration provide?

This allows the switch to host web pages for the network.

This allows remote VPN connections to the switch over the Internet.

This is required if a web server or web farm is attached to the switch.

This allows web-based configuration tools to be used with the switch.
29
What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)

requires less equipment

provides improved range

permits increased data rates

has a single-input and a single-output

needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility
30

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to Switch1. However, the SSH connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The RSA key has been removed.

SSH has been configured on the wrong line.

The transport input command is applied incorrectly.

The domain name has been configured in the wrong configuration mode.
31

Refer to the exhibit. A new switch, SW3, has been added to the network. The network administrator determines that VLAN information is not propagating to SW3. Which command will remedy the problem?

SW1(config)# vtp version 1

SW2(config)# vtp mode client

SW3(config)# vtp domain Cisco1

SW3(config)# vtp mode transparent
32
Which CLI mode allows users to access all device commands, such as those used for configuration, management, and troubleshooting?

user EXEC mode

privileged EXEC mode

global configuration mode

interface configuration mode
33

Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem?

Relocate the APs closer to each other.

Increase the distance between the clients.

Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11.

Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.
34
A switch that is using port-based memory buffering receives two incoming frames on the same port. The destination port for the first frame that is received is busy. How will the switch handle the second frame that it received?

The second frame will have to wait to be delivered even if its destination port is available.

The second frame will be delivered to the memory buffer for its destination port.

The second frame will be placed in a common memory buffer to await delivery.

The second frame will be dropped.
35

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2. Hosts A, B, C, and D are correctly configured with IP addresses in the subnet range for VLAN 50. Host A can communicate with host B, but cannot communicate with host C or host D. What is the cause of this problem?

There is a native VLAN mismatch.

The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk.

The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.

VLAN 50 is not allowed on the trunk link between Switch1 and Switch2.
36

Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?

All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.

SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.

VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.

The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.
37
Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history size at the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available. What is the problem?

The command contained a syntax error.

The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer.

The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch.

The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.
38

Refer to the exhibit. Which two options correctly describe the router configuration that is shown? (Choose two.)

Routing between the 192.168.1.0 and 192.168.3.0 networks will not succeed until a routing protocol is configured on the router.

VLANs have not been appropriately configured on the router subinterfaces.

The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.

Trunking has been appropriately configured on the router subinterfaces.

An IP address should be applied to interface Fa0/1 for routing to occur.
39

Refer to the exhibit. After entering the commands in the exhibit, the administrator receives a “password required, but none set” message when attempting to connect to S1. What is the problem?

The enable secret password was not set.

S1 does not have login configured on the vty lines.

S1 does not have a password configured for the vty lines.

The crypto key is not properly configured to generate passwords.

The VLAN1 interface has not be enabled with the no shutdown command.
40

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured R1 and S1 as displayed. However, PC1 is unable to access PC2. What is the likely problem?

No routing protocol is configured on R1.

The Fa0/1 port of S1 is not a trunk port.

The default gateway address is not set on S1.

Only one physical link between S1 and R1 is configured for inter-VLAN routing.
41

Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute to completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced?

Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s.

Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2.

Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch.

Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol.
42

Refer to the exhibit. What are two reasons for the Fa0/24 port being placed in the blocking state? (Choose two.)

This switch is not the root bridge.

The Fa0/24 port is administratively down.

STP has detected links that create a loop.

There is a change in the VTP configuration.

The Fa0/24 port is overloaded with too much traffic for its configured bandwidth.
43
Which three actions are performed during the boot sequence of a Cisco switch? (Choose three.)

The boot loader uses the self-contained switch operating system to boot the switch.

The boot loader retrieves diagnostics routines via TFTP.

The boot loader performs POST.

The boot loader is loaded from RAM.

The boot loader initializes the flash file system that is used to boot the system.

The boot loader loads the default operating system if the flash-based operating system is corrupt or missing.
44
Which combination is required to establish a connection to initially configure the Linksys WRT300N wireless access device?

a computer with a console connection to the WRT300N

a computer with a wireless connection to the WRT300N

a computer with an AUX port connection to the WRT300N

a computer configured in the same IP subnet as the WRT300N and a direct cable connection to it
45

Refer to the exhibit. RTB is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. RTB can ping computer A but cannot ping computer B. What is a possible cause of this failure?

Port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.

RTB does not have an active routing protocol.

The IP address of computer B is in the wrong logical network.

Router interface Fa0/1 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.
46
In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?

client

root

server

transparent
47

Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?

Disable VTP pruning on SW2.

Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.

Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.

Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
48

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router?

WEP identifies the wireless LAN.

WEP allows the access point to inform clients of its presence.

WEP translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names.

WEP encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point.

WEP ensures that only authenticated users are allowed access to the WLAN.

WEP translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.
49

Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?

QoS

routing

trunking

VPN
50

Refer to the exhibit. All switches are configured with the default bridge priority. Which port will act as a non-designated port if all links are operating at the same bandwidth?

Fa0/1 interface of switch A

Fa0/2 interface of switch A

Fa0/1 interface of switch B

Fa0/2 interface of switch B

Fa0/1 interface of switch C

Fa0/2 interface of switch C
51
What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks?

DSSS

OFDM

SSID

WPA
52

Refer to the exhibit. Computer D sends a broadcast message. Which devices will process the broadcast message?

computer E

computer D and computer E

computer D, computer E, and Router1

computer B and computer E

computer B, computer E, and Router1

computer C, computer D, and computer E

computer C, computer D, computer E, and Router1

computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E, and Router1

source :  ccna4u

3 Comments

CCNA 3 Final

15
Nov

CCNA E3 Final

Posted by: admin

[learn-ccna.com]

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. The show ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on the Switch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in the exhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be applied to the switch?
Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

2. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?
802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

3. What vLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.

4. Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
SSID
OFDM
WEP
DSSS

5. Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?
SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.
SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop.
SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.

6. Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN on switch Y?
QoS
routing
trunking
VPN

7. Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator enters spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct? (Choose two.)
S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the VTP domain.
This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the VTP domain.
This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same
VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number.

9. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.

12. What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
A new RSA key pair is created.
The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.

13. Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
Forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3.
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table.
forward the frame out Interface3.
discard the frame.
forward the frame out all interfaces.
forward the frame out Interface2.

14. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.

15. Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28

16. Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
computer B
computer B and Router1
computer C and Router1
computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1

19. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The SSH version number is wrong.
SSH has been configured on the wrong line.
Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.
The transport input command is configured incorrectly.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
Cat-D

21. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?
VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005

22. Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?
The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.
Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15.
This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.
When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.

23. Which three statements are true regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
requires the use of subinterfaces on the router.
requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch.
more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces.
requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command.
can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface.
makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interfaces.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3
The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the

25. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two)
S1-Central# reload
S1-Central# erase flash:
S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2
S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3

26. Refer to the exhibit. What does “FORWARDING” mean in the command output shown?
The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

27. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.

28. What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
reduced contention for bandwidth.
reduced size of the physical layout.
increased fault tolerance of the network.
elimination of the need for wiring closets.
elimination of the need for layer three functionality.
simplification of management and troubleshooting.

29. Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.

30. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?

All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.
The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain

31. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?
AS1 and AS2
DS1 and DS2
Gateway and CS1
Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2

32. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three).
Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
Enable password is configured as cisco.
All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
The flash directory contains the IOS image.
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex.

33. Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the idle before transmitting.

34. Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic
trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.

35. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address
Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from the traffic originated.

36. What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
Select the correct VTP mode and version.
Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain
Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain.

37. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B
only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E

38. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?
The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports
The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration.
To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command.

39. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)
This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch
Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch
Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001
spanning-tree domain.

40. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)
The switch ports are on different VLANs.
The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2.
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.

41. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
switch F

42. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?
hub HB1
switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4

43. Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosingthe root bridge?
The network diameter limitation is 9.
BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and farthest connected switch.

44. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem
Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.

45. What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
disable port security
make the port operational
override the default port behavior
force the port to be a part of a single vlan

46. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the information shown?
Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs.

47. Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?
AID
SSID
BSSID
ESSID

48. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach interface fa0/24?
A syslog message will be logged.
Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
The incoming frames will be dropped.
The security violation count will be incremented.

49. In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
client
root
server
transparent

50. Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software
From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.

51. What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses.
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

52. What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment.
provides improved range.
permits increased data rates.
has a single-input and a single-output.
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility.

source :modules4ccna.blogspot.com

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CCNA 3 Final, CCNA Exploration 3

11
Aug

CCNA 3 FINAL, CCNA DISCOVERY 3

Posted by: admin

Download:http://www.4shared.com/file/115123556/6cfa27da/CCNA_Discovery_3_FINAL_Exam_Answers_.html

1. What are two characteristics of an extended ACL? (Choose two.)
* IP is used to specify TCP traffic only.
* IP is used to specify TCP and UDP traffic only.
* IP is used to specify all TCP/IP protocols including TCP, UDP, ICMP and routing protocols.
* Traffic can be filtered on source address only.
* Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address only.
* Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address, protocol, and specific port number.
2. In which VTP mode can a switch create VLANs, ignore VTP messages, and not pass local VLAN information to other VTP domain members?
* client
* server
* pruning
* transparent
2. Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)
* Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.
* LCP tests the quality of the link.
* LCP manages compression on the link
* NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete.
* With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.
3. What are two characteristics of an extended ACL? (Choose two.)

* IP is used to specify all TCP/IP protocols including TCP, UDP, ICMP and routing protocols.
* Traffic can be filtered on source address only.
* Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address only.
* Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address, protocol, and specific port number.
* IP is used to specify TCP traffic only.
* IP is used to specify TCP and UDP traffic only.
3. Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)
* LCP tests the quality of the link.
* LCP manages compression on the link
* Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.
* NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete.
* With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.

4. Assuming VLSM is not being used, what impact will adding the command ip route 172.16.64.0 255.255.240.0 serial0/0 have on a router that is already operational in a network?
* All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.255.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
* All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.79.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
* All packets with a destination address between 172.16.0.1 and 172.16.64.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
* All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.80.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.


5.
8
Refer to the exhibit. The network is using OSPF as the routing protocol. A network administrator issues the show ip ospf neighbor command to check the status of operation. Which statement is true?
* RB has the lowest priority value.
* RC and RD have the lowest router IDs on the network.
* RA has established adjacencies with all neighbor routers.
* RA and RB cannot form an adjacency because they are stuck in the 2-way state.

6. A sales representative is preparing to send sensitive information to corporate headquarters from a hotel room using the Internet. Prior to the trip, the IT staff made the necessary provisions to allow secure Internet access. What solution was implemented for the sales representative?
* VPN
* Frame Relay
* PPP with CHAP authentication
* PPP with PAP authentication

7.
1
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator noticed that the VLAN configuration changes at SW2 did not propagate to SW3. On the basis of the partial output of the show vtp status command, what is the possible cause of the problem?
* VTP V2 mode is disabled.
* SW3 is configured as transparent mode.
* The number of existing VLANs does not match.
* The configuration revision number does not match.

8.
1
Refer to the exhibit. Because of continuing instability of one of the serial links in the OSPF network, a network administrator configures router ASBR as shown. Which two statements will be a result of this configuration? (Choose two.)
* Traffic intended for destinations across unstable serial links will be forwarded by ASBR even when the links are down
* A summary route of 192.168.0.0/22 will be advertised to the ISP router.
* Serial links in range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0 will be forced into a passive state.
* Networks connected to the unstable serial links will be placed in an unreachable state.
* Negative effects of route flapping will be reduced.

9. Which two criteria are used by STP to select a root bridge? (Choose two.)
* memory size
* bridge priority
* number of ports
* switch location
* switching speed
* base MAC address

10. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 150 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
* 255.255.0.0
* 255.255.240.0
* 255.255.254.0
* 255.255.255.0
* 255.255.255.128
* 255.255.255.192

11.
4
What is the term for the value 2172416 that is highlighted in the output of the show ip eigrp topology command?
* feasible distance of the successor
* reported distance of the successor
* feasible distance of the feasible successor
* reported distance of the feasible successor

12.
16
Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 is configured in the network shown. Hosts in the network have access to all internal networks but do not have Internet access. On which router should the commands, shown in the exhibit, be added to provide Internet access for all hosts in the network?
* R1
* R2
* R3
* ISP

13. What do companies gain from the services performed at the enterprise edge?
* faster communication with server farms
* stronger security against malicious attacks
* faster communication with Internet destinations
* enhanced performance and reliability through VLANs and redundant trunk links

14.
11
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wishes to deny Internet access to all R2 LAN hosts, while allowing these hosts to reach all other devices on the company networks. Where the ACL shown in the exhibit should be placed to meet these requirements?
* R2: Fa0/0 inbound
* R1: S0/1/0 outbound
* R1: S0/0/1 inbound
* R2: S0/0/1 outbound
* R2: Fa0/0 outbound

15.
6
Refer to the exhibit. In what sequence (from first to last) does an OSPF router check the parameters listed when selecting the DR?
* C, B, A, D
* D, C, B, A
* A, B, C, D
* A, C, B, D
* B, C, A, D

16. What two statements are true regarding EIGRP tables? (Choose two.)
* A feasible successor route can be found in the topology table.
* A successor route can only be found in the routing table.
* The topology table shows whether a route is in the passive or active state.
* The routing table shows the amount of time elapsed since a router adjacency was formed.
* The neighbor table shows all adjacent Cisco devices.
* Administrative distance is shown as a column in the neighbor table.

17.
10
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that all three routers are configured with the EIGRP routing protocol and sharing information, what information can be gathered from the show command output?
* Router B has EIGRP adjacencies with both router A and C.
* Router B has a fully converged topology table.
* Router B has not formed an adjacency with router A.
* Router B has not formed an adjacency with router C.

18. Which three statements are true about RSTP? (Choose three.)
* RSTP can fall back to STP to provide support for legacy equipment.
* RSTP and STP have the same number of port states.
* Like PortFast and UplinkFast, RSTP is a proprietary protocol.
* RSTP takes up to 50 seconds to converge.
* RSTP requires a point-to-point, full-duplex connection.
* RSTP views all ports that are not discarding as part of an active topology.

19.
15
Refer to the exhibit. A network support technician has been asked to set an IP address on one of the FastEthernet interfaces on a new router. What is causing the interface to reject the address?
* The IP address is already in use.
* The technician is using a network address.
* The technician is using the wrong subnet mask for /26
* The technician must enable VLSM on the interface.

20.
8
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the command ip route 10.10.4.16 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1 into the router. What will be the result of this configuration?
* A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table.
* A static route to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table if interface FastEthernet0/1 goes down.
* A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is only placed into the routing table if the route to 10.10.4.0 is removed.
* A static route is not placed into the routing table because a RIP route that includes the destination network already exists.

21.
10
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is connected to the Internet through its serial 0/0/0 interface. Hosts on the 192.168.100.0/24 LAN on R1 cannot communicate with hosts on the Internet. What two NAT configuration issues might explain this failure? (Choose two.)
* The ip nat pool command has not been applied correctly.
* The inside interface has not been defined on R1.
* The access list does not include the group of IP addresses that are supported by the inside network.
* The ip address that is assigned to the serial 0/0/0 interface is incorrect
* The outside interface has not been defined on R1.

22.
5
Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected via serial interfaces. Both interfaces show that there is Layer 2 connectivity between them. The administrator verifies that CDP is operational; however, pings between the two interfaces are unsuccessful. What is the cause of this connectivity problem?
* no set loopback
* incorrect subnet mask on R2
* incompatible bandwidth
* incorrect IP address on R1
* incompatible encapsulation

23. Which two statements describe how the information contained in a BPDU is used by a switch? (Choose two.)
* to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
* to activate looped paths throughout the network
* to determine the root bridge
* to prevent loops by sharing routing tables between connected switches
* to determine which ports are placed in forwarding mode

24. When MD5 authentication is used for OSPF routing protocol authentication, what two facts are known about the key? (Choose two.)
* The key passes between routers in plain text.
* The key is used to help generate an encrypted number for authentication.
* The key passes between routers in encrypted form.
* The key is never transmitted.
* The key can be captured by using a packet sniffer.

25.
9
Refer to the exhibit. If router RTA fails, which statement is true?
* Hosts A and B can reach each other, but cannot reach hosts C and D or the server.
* No host can reach any other host.
* Hosts A, B, C, and D can reach each other, but cannot reach the server.
* All hosts can reach each other.

26. Which command should a network administrator issue to disable default summarization in an EIGRP network?
* Router(config-router)# null 0 route
* Router(config-if)# no ip summary-address
* Router(config-router)# no ip summary-address
* Router(config-if)# no auto-summary
* Router(config-router)# no auto-summary

27.
3
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.30.20.0/24 network are unable to access any of the servers located on the 192.168.0.0/23 network. Given the network topology and OSPF configuration, what two problems exist in this network? (Choose two.)
* There is a routing loop occurring between all three routers.
* There is a network statement missing.
* Network 172.30.20.0 has an incorrect wildcard mask.
* The OSPF Area configuration is incorrect.
* /23 is an invalid subnet mask for the 192.168.0.0 network.

28.
11
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme would be correct for the network?
* H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.18.0.11/16
H3-172.18.0.12/16
* H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.19.0.10/16
H3-172.18.0.11/16
* H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.18.0.11/16
H3-172.19.0.11/16
* H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.19.0.11/16
H3-172.19.0.11/16

29.
14
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new router to the network. The IP address 192.168.13.6/30 has been assigned to the connecting serial interface on R2. What IP address must the administrator assign to the serial interface of the new router?
* 192.168.13.4/30
* 192.168.13.5/30
* 192.168.13.7/30
* 192.168.13.58/30
* 192.168.13.61/27
* 192.168.13.63/27

30. After comparing a previous baseline to current network statistics, the network engineer has discovered a significant increase in unwarranted traffic to the extranet. Which two steps simplify administration and control the unwanted traffic? (Choose two.)
* define an ACL at the distribution layer to isolate packets
* add an ACL at the router in the enterprise edge to block the traffic
* deploy a Layer 3 switch to contain broadcasts
* connect remote locations directly to the intranet
* configure all hosts with the same default gateway to eliminate unnecessary broadcasts
* deploy one core ISP router to reduce the delay in path determination

31. Which statement is accurate about the CIR in Frame Relay?
* It is important to purchase a CIR that matches the highest bandwidth requirements of the enterprise.
* The CIR can be no lower than the port speed of the local loop.
* The CIR defines the contracted maximum rate available from the service provider on the Frame Relay circuit
* It is possible to burst over the CIR if bandwidth is available.

32. A sales representative is using a wireless connection to make a VoIP call. Which protocol will be used to transport the voice packets?
* TCP
* UDP
* PPP
* HDLC

33. A network administrator wants to deny responses to ping requests. Which ACL statement denies ping responses while not affecting other traffic?
* access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 80
* access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 20
* access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 21
* access-list 123 deny icmp any any echo-reply
* access-list 101 deny tcp any any established

34. Why would a network administrator want to limit the size of failure domains when designing a network?
* to eliminate the effects of Ethernet collisions
* to reduce the impact of a key device or service failure
* to reduce the impact of Internet congestion on critical traffic
* to eliminate the need to block broadcast packets at the edge of the local network

35. What are two benefits of implementing VLANs in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
* eliminates the need for a Layer 3 device
* provides segmentation of broadcast domains
* allows for the propagation of broadcasts from one local network to another
* allows for the logical grouping of devices despite physical location
* prevents issues such as broadcast storms by ensuring a loop free environment

36. Which three IP addresses are valid host addresses in the 10.200.0.0/20 network? (Choose three.)
* 10.200.11.69
* 10.200.16.1
* 10.200.0.255
* 10.201.0.55
* 10.200.15.240
* 10.200.30.29

37.
5
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the RIPv1 routing protocol is enabled and that all networks are being advertised, which statement is true?
* All packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2.
* None of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2.
* Approximately half the traffic from H1 that is destined to H2 will reach R3.
* Some of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will be sent to the switch that is connected to network 192.168.3.64/26.

38.
2
Refer to the exhibit. Which route will appear in the routing table?
* R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.10.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/1
* R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0
* R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/2] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0
* R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/3] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0
* R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0

39.
13
Refer to the exhibit. Server7 has been added to the server farm network. The hosts can ping Servers 2 and 3 and Server2 and Server3 can ping each other. Server7 cannot ping the other servers connected to the switch. What is the cause of this problem?
* The Fa0/1 port on the switch should be in access mode.
* The switch IP address is not on the same subnet as Server7.
* The switch port used for Server7 is not in the same VLAN as Server2 and Server3.
* The Fa0/0 interface of the router has not been configured for subinterfaces to support inter-VLAN routing.

40. What will be the two wildcard masks required in an extended access list statement that blocks traffic to host 192.168.5.45 from the 172.16.240.0/27 network? (Choose two.)
* 0.0.0.0 5
* 255.255.240.0
* 255.255.255.255
* 0.0.31.255
* 255.255.255.240
* 0.0.0.31

41. If a modem is being used to connect to an ISP, which WAN connection type is being used?
* leased line
* cell switched
* circuit switched
* packet switched

42.
3
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must manually summarize all IP addresses on the POP router for the ISP. Which one is the correct summary address?
* 192.168.0.0/22
* 192.168.0.0/23
* 192.168.0.0/24
* 192.168.0.0/25

43.
2
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is enabled and the network has completely converged. Which two routers will be designated as DROTHER routers? (Choose two.)
* R1
* R2
* R3
* R4

44.
7
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the displayed output? (Choose two.)
* A packet with a destination IP address of 172.20.1.14 will exit the router via the Serial 0/1/0n interface.
* The default administrative distance for EIGRP has been changed.
* Network 172.20.1.4 can be reached through two possible routes of equal cost.
* The addresses on this network were created using VLSM.
* The router connected to Serial 0/1/1 is advertising four separate routes through EIGRP to this router.

45.
4
Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be gathered from the output of this command? (Choose two.)
* 172.16.16.0/20 is a manually summarized route.
* All subnets are being advertised because default summarization was disabled.
* The output verifies that EIGRP is advertising only the networks in the same AS.
* The 172.16.1.0/24 network is directly attached to the router that produced this output.
* The Null0 interface indicates that this is not an actual path, but a summary for advertising purposes.

46.
7
Refer to the exhibit. What three facts represent the result of DR and BDR elections in this OSPF network? (Choose three.)
* RTC will be the DR of 10.5.0.0/30
* RTD will be the BDR of 10.5.0.0/30.
* RTD will be the DR of 10.4.0.0/28.
* RTB will be the BDR of 10.7.0.0/28.
* RTB will be the DR of 10.7.0.0/28.
* RTA will be the BDR of 10.4.0.0/28.

47.
12
Refer to the exhibit. Internet access is crucial for the company network shown. Internet access is provided by two ISPs. ISP1 is the primary provider and ISP2 is the backup provider. The network administrator configures BorderR as the border router so that in normal operations, all Internet traffic goes through ISP1. However, if the link to ISP1 fails, then BorderR will automatically forward Internet traffic to ISP2. The administrator configures two default routes:
BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.100.1 200
BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1
However, when the administrator issued the show ip route command to verify the configuration, only the second default route is in the routing table. Why is the first default route not showing?
* The first configuration command overwrites the second command.
* The first default route will be installed into the routing table if there is traffic with an IP address that is destined for the 192.168.100.0 network.
* This is expected because the link to ISP1 is active. If the link to ISP1 goes down, then the first default route will be installed into the routing table.
* The first default route cannot be installed into the routing table unless the administrator manually disables the second default route with the no ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1 command.

48.
17
Refer to the exhibit. If R4 is announcing all shown internal networks as a summary address to the ISP, which summary address will be most specific?
* 192.168.1.0/22
* 192.168.4.0/21
* 192.168.6.0/23
* 192.168.8.0/21
* 192.168.4.0/22

49. Which two statements are true about the native VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)
* It requires a special VLAN ID tag.
* It is unable to be changed to a different VLAN.
* Untagged traffic slows the switching process down
* The native VLAN defaults to VLAN 1 on Cisco Catalyst switches.
* Untagged frames that are received on a trunk become members of this VLAN

50.
13
Refer to the exhibit. A company has recently installed a new switch (S2) into their network.After several minutes, the network administrator notices that the new VLAN information is not being propagated to the new switch. Given the show vtp status command output, what is the possible problem that prevents the information from being received by the new switch?
* VTP version mismatch
* VTP domain name mismatch
* VTP revision number mismatch
* Time synchronization problems

51.
6
Refer to the exhibit. All routes in the exhibit are available to a router. Which two routes will be placed into the routing table? (Choose two.)
* A
* B
* C
* D
* E
* F

52.
12
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command: RouterA(config)# access-list 1 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255?
* It identifies traffic on all inside interfaces to be translated and given access to the ISP router.
* It identifies traffic from the fa0/1 interface to be translated and given access to the ISP router.
* It allows traffic from the ISP to reach all of the inside interfaces.
* It identifies traffic from the fa0/0 interface to be translated and given access to the ISP router
* It allows traffic from the ISP router to the fa0/1 interface.

53. The headquarters of a corporation uses static routes to connect to three branch offices. What are two advantages of using static routes for the WAN connections? (Choose two.)
* Static routes are more secure.
* Static routes converge faster.
* Static routes have higher administrative distances than dynamic routing protocols.
* The metrics of a static route need adjusting only if the bandwidth of the WAN connection changes.
* They are more stable and less susceptible to network changes in the interior gateway protocol.

54. What are two ways VLAN memberships can be created in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
* manually configuring the switch ports to be part of a VLAN
* allowing the user to choose a specific VLAN through a GUI menu
* configuring the switch to allow VLAN membership based on NetBIOS association
* implementing an access list that specifies which devices are placed into specific VLANs.
* associating MAC addresses to specific VLANs in a VLAN management policy server database
* manually configuring the host devices to be part of a VLAN

55. Which two statements are true about RIPv1 and RIPv2? (Choose two.)
* Both versions broadcast updates on port 520.
* Both versions send the subnet mask as part of the update.
* By default, both versions will receive RIPv1 and RIPv2 updates.
* Both versions support the features of split horizon and poison reverse
* By default, both versions automatically summarize routes.
* RIPv1 has a higher AD than RIPv2 has.

56. Which bandwidth allocation technique minimizes bandwidth waste by reallocating unused time slices to communicating users?
* VPN
* NCP
* TDM
* STP
* STDM

57.
9
Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by the Null0 route for the 128.107.0.0 network?
* a child route that is defined
* a parent route that is defined and sourced from a physical interface
* a summary route for advertising purposes, not an actual path
* the result of the no auto-summary command on a router

58. If an authentication protocol is configured for PPP operation, when is the client or user workstation authenticated?
* prior to link establishment
* during the link establishment phase
* before the network layer protocol configuration begins
* after the network layer protocol configuration has ended


Scribd : http://www.scribd.com/doc/16962675/CCNA-Discovery-3-FINAL-Exam-Answers

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CCNA 3 Final, CCNA Exploration 3

11
Aug

CCNA Exploration 3 – FINAL Exam Answers

Posted by: admin

1. Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
* SSID
* OFDM
* WEP
* DSSS

1,
image
Refer to the exhibit. The networkadministrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. Theshow ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on theSwitch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in theexhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be appliedto the switch?
* Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
* Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254
* Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
* Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
* Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

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2.
image
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?
* 802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of theoriginal Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
* 802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
* 802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame. * 802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

3. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
* All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
* Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
* Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
* The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.

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4,
image
Refer to the exhibit. The networkadministrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. Theshow ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on theSwitch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in theexhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be appliedto the switch?
* Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
* Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254
* Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
* Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
* Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

5.
image
Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?
* SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.
* SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop.
* SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
* SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.

6.
image
Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?
* QoS
* routing
* trunking
* VPN

7.
image
Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct? (Choose two.)
* S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
* S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
* S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
* S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
* S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.

8.
image
Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
* This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
* This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
* This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
* This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the same VTP domain.
* This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number.

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9.
image
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
* S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
* R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
* The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
* Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

10.
image
Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
* Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
* Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
* Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
* Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.

11.
image
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
* Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
* Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
* Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
* Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.

12. What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
* A new RSA key pair is created.
* The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
* The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
* The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.

13.
image
Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
* forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
* add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
* forward the frame out Interface3
* discard the frame
* forward the frame out all interfaces
* forward the frame out Interface2

14. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
* It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
* It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
* It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
* It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
* It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.

15.
image
Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?
* 192.168.1.11 /28
* 192.168.1.22 /28
* 192.168.1.33 /28
* 192.168.1.44 /28
* 192.168.1.55 /28

16.
image
Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
* SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
* SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
* SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
* SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
* A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
* A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
* An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.
* An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
* A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
* A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.

18.
image
Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
* computer B
* computer B and Router1
* computer C and Router1
* computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1
* computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
* computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1

19.
image
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
* The SSH version number is wrong.
* SSH has been configured on the wrong line.
* Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.
* The transport input command is configured incorrectly.

20.
image
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
* Cat-A
* Cat-B
* Cat-C
* Cat-D

21.
image
Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?
* VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
* VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
* VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
* VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005

22.
image
Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?
* The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.
* Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15.
* This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.
* The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.
* When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.

23. Which three statements are regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
* requires the use of subinterfaces on the router
* requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
* more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces
* requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command
* can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface
* makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interfaces

24.
image
Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
* The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
* The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
* The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
* The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
* The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
* The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

25.
image
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two.)
* S1-Central# reload
* S1-Central# erase flash:
* S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2
* S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
* S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3

26.
imageRefer to the exhibit. What does “FORWARDING” mean in the command output shown?
* The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
* The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
* The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
* The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

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27.
imageRefer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
* Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
* Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
* Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
* Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.

28. What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
* reduced contention for bandwidth
* reduced size of the physical layout
* increased fault tolerance of the network
* elimination of the need for wiring closets
* elimination of the need for layer three functionality
* simplification of management and troubleshooting

29.
image
Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
* Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
* A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
* The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
* A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
* Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
* An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.

30.
image
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
* All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
* SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
* VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.
* The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.

31.
image
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?
* AS1 and AS2
* DS1 and DS2
* Gateway and CS1
* Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2

32. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
* Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
* Enable password is configured as cisco.
* All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
* The flash directory contains the IOS image.
* VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
* All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex.

33.
image
Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
* After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
* Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
* The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
* Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
* If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.

34.
image
Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
* The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
* The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
* The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
* The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.

35.
image
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
* Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
* Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
* Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
* Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
* Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.

36. What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
* Select the correct VTP mode and version.
* Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
* Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
* Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
* Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain.
* Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain.

37.
image
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
* only hosts A and B
* only hosts A, B, and C
* only hosts A, B, C, and D
* only hosts A, B, C, and E

38. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is ?
* The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
* The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports.
* The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration.
* To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command.

39.
image
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)
* This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
* A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.
* Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch.
* Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
* The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.

40.
image
Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)
* The switch ports are on different VLANs.
* The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
* The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
* A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2.
* The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
* The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.

41.
image
Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
* switch A
* switch B
* switch C
* switch D
* switch E
* switch F

42.
image
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?
* hub HB1
* switch SW1
* router R1
* switch SW2
* router R2
* switch SW4

43. Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
* The network diameter limitation is 9.
* BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
* The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
* The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.

44.
image
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
* Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
* Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
* No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
* One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.

45. What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
* disable port security
* make the port operational
* override the default port behavior
* force the port to be a part of a single vlan

46.
image
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is regarding the information shown?
* Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
* The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
* A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
* Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs

47. Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?
* AID
* SSID
* BSSID
* ESSID

48.
image
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach interface fa0/24?
* A syslog message will be logged.
* Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
* The incoming frames will be dropped.
* The security violation count will be incremented.

49. In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
* client
* root
* server
* transparent

50. Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
* Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
* Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
* From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
* Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.

51. What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
* Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses
* The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
* The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
* The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
* Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

52. What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
* requires less equipment
* provides improved range
* permits increased data rates

* needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility
* has a single-input and a single-output

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13 Comments

CCNA 3 Final, CCNA Exploration 3

07
Aug

CCNA 3 FINAL- CCNA DISCOVERY 3

Posted by: admin

1. What are two characteristics of an extended ACL? (Choose two.)

* IP is used to specify TCP traffic only.

* IP is used to specify TCP and UDP traffic only.

* IP is used to specify all TCP/IP protocols including TCP, UDP, ICMP and routing protocols.

* Traffic can be filtered on source address only.

* Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address only.

* Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address, protocol, and specific port number.

2. In which VTP mode can a switch create VLANs, ignore VTP messages, and not pass local VLAN information to other VTP domain members?

* client

* server

* pruning

* transparent

2. Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)

* Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.

* LCP tests the quality of the link.

* LCP manages compression on the link

* NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete.

* With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.

3. What are two characteristics of an extended ACL? (Choose two.)

* IP is used to specify all TCP/IP protocols including TCP, UDP, ICMP and routing protocols.
* Traffic can be filtered on source address only.
* Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address only.
* Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address, protocol, and specific port number.
* IP is used to specify TCP traffic only.
* IP is used to specify TCP and UDP traffic only.
3. Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)
* LCP tests the quality of the link.
* LCP manages compression on the link
* Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.
* NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete.
* With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.

4. Assuming VLSM is not being used, what impact will adding the command ip route 172.16.64.0 255.255.240.0 serial0/0 have on a router that is already operational in a network?
* All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.255.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
* All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.79.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
* All packets with a destination address between 172.16.0.1 and 172.16.64.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
* All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.80.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.

5.

8

Refer to the exhibit. The network is using OSPF as the routing protocol. A network administrator issues the show ip ospf neighbor command to check the status of operation. Which statement is true?

* RB has the lowest priority value.

* RC and RD have the lowest router IDs on the network.

* RA has established adjacencies with all neighbor routers.

* RA and RB cannot form an adjacency because they are stuck in the 2-way state.

6. A sales representative is preparing to send sensitive information to corporate headquarters from a hotel room using the Internet. Prior to the trip, the IT staff made the necessary provisions to allow secure Internet access. What solution was implemented for the sales representative?
* VPN
* Frame Relay
* PPP with CHAP authentication
* PPP with PAP authentication

7.
1
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator noticed that the VLAN configuration changes at SW2 did not propagate to SW3. On the basis of the partial output of the show vtp status command, what is the possible cause of the problem?
* VTP V2 mode is disabled.
* SW3 is configured as transparent mode.
* The number of existing VLANs does not match.
* The configuration revision number does not match.

8.
1
Refer to the exhibit. Because of continuing instability of one of the serial links in the OSPF network, a network administrator configures router ASBR as shown. Which two statements will be a result of this configuration? (Choose two.)
* Traffic intended for destinations across unstable serial links will be forwarded by ASBR even when the links are down
* A summary route of 192.168.0.0/22 will be advertised to the ISP router.
* Serial links in range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0 will be forced into a passive state.
* Networks connected to the unstable serial links will be placed in an unreachable state.
* Negative effects of route flapping will be reduced.

9. Which two criteria are used by STP to select a root bridge? (Choose two.)
* memory size
* bridge priority
* number of ports
* switch location
* switching speed
* base MAC address

10. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 150 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
* 255.255.0.0
* 255.255.240.0
* 255.255.254.0
* 255.255.255.0
* 255.255.255.128
* 255.255.255.192

11.
4
What is the term for the value 2172416 that is highlighted in the output of the show ip eigrp topology command?
* feasible distance of the successor
* reported distance of the successor
* feasible distance of the feasible successor
* reported distance of the feasible successor

12.
16
Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 is configured in the network shown. Hosts in the network have access to all internal networks but do not have Internet access. On which router should the commands, shown in the exhibit, be added to provide Internet access for all hosts in the network?
* R1
* R2
* R3
* ISP

13. What do companies gain from the services performed at the enterprise edge?
* faster communication with server farms
* stronger security against malicious attacks
* faster communication with Internet destinations
* enhanced performance and reliability through VLANs and redundant trunk links

14.
11
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wishes to deny Internet access to all R2 LAN hosts, while allowing these hosts to reach all other devices on the company networks. Where the ACL shown in the exhibit should be placed to meet these requirements?
* R2: Fa0/0 inbound
* R1: S0/1/0 outbound
* R1: S0/0/1 inbound
* R2: S0/0/1 outbound
* R2: Fa0/0 outbound

15.
6
Refer to the exhibit. In what sequence (from first to last) does an OSPF router check the parameters listed when selecting the DR?
* C, B, A, D
* D, C, B, A
* A, B, C, D
* A, C, B, D
* B, C, A, D

16. What two statements are true regarding EIGRP tables? (Choose two.)
* A feasible successor route can be found in the topology table.
* A successor route can only be found in the routing table.
* The topology table shows whether a route is in the passive or active state.
* The routing table shows the amount of time elapsed since a router adjacency was formed.
* The neighbor table shows all adjacent Cisco devices.
* Administrative distance is shown as a column in the neighbor table.

17.
10
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that all three routers are configured with the EIGRP routing protocol and sharing information, what information can be gathered from the show command output?
* Router B has EIGRP adjacencies with both router A and C.
* Router B has a fully converged topology table.
* Router B has not formed an adjacency with router A.
* Router B has not formed an adjacency with router C.

18. Which three statements are true about RSTP? (Choose three.)
* RSTP can fall back to STP to provide support for legacy equipment.
* RSTP and STP have the same number of port states.
* Like PortFast and UplinkFast, RSTP is a proprietary protocol.
* RSTP takes up to 50 seconds to converge.
* RSTP requires a point-to-point, full-duplex connection.
* RSTP views all ports that are not discarding as part of an active topology.

19.
15
Refer to the exhibit. A network support technician has been asked to set an IP address on one of the FastEthernet interfaces on a new router. What is causing the interface to reject the address?
* The IP address is already in use.
* The technician is using a network address.
* The technician is using the wrong subnet mask for /26
* The technician must enable VLSM on the interface.

20.
8
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the command ip route 10.10.4.16 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1 into the router. What will be the result of this configuration?
* A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table.
* A static route to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table if interface FastEthernet0/1 goes down.
* A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is only placed into the routing table if the route to 10.10.4.0 is removed.
* A static route is not placed into the routing table because a RIP route that includes the destination network already exists.

21.
10
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is connected to the Internet through its serial 0/0/0 interface. Hosts on the 192.168.100.0/24 LAN on R1 cannot communicate with hosts on the Internet. What two NAT configuration issues might explain this failure? (Choose two.)
* The ip nat pool command has not been applied correctly.
* The inside interface has not been defined on R1.
* The access list does not include the group of IP addresses that are supported by the inside network.
* The ip address that is assigned to the serial 0/0/0 interface is incorrect
* The outside interface has not been defined on R1.

22.
5
Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected via serial interfaces. Both interfaces show that there is Layer 2 connectivity between them. The administrator verifies that CDP is operational; however, pings between the two interfaces are unsuccessful. What is the cause of this connectivity problem?
* no set loopback
* incorrect subnet mask on R2
* incompatible bandwidth
* incorrect IP address on R1
* incompatible encapsulation

23. Which two statements describe how the information contained in a BPDU is used by a switch? (Choose two.)
* to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
* to activate looped paths throughout the network
* to determine the root bridge
* to prevent loops by sharing routing tables between connected switches
* to determine which ports are placed in forwarding mode

24. When MD5 authentication is used for OSPF routing protocol authentication, what two facts are known about the key? (Choose two.)
* The key passes between routers in plain text.
* The key is used to help generate an encrypted number for authentication.
* The key passes between routers in encrypted form.
* The key is never transmitted.
* The key can be captured by using a packet sniffer.

25.
9
Refer to the exhibit. If router RTA fails, which statement is true?
* Hosts A and B can reach each other, but cannot reach hosts C and D or the server.
* No host can reach any other host.
* Hosts A, B, C, and D can reach each other, but cannot reach the server.
* All hosts can reach each other.

26. Which command should a network administrator issue to disable default summarization in an EIGRP network?
* Router(config-router)# null 0 route
* Router(config-if)# no ip summary-address
* Router(config-router)# no ip summary-address
* Router(config-if)# no auto-summary
* Router(config-router)# no auto-summary

27.
3
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.30.20.0/24 network are unable to access any of the servers located on the 192.168.0.0/23 network. Given the network topology and OSPF configuration, what two problems exist in this network? (Choose two.)
* There is a routing loop occurring between all three routers.
* There is a network statement missing.
* Network 172.30.20.0 has an incorrect wildcard mask.
* The OSPF Area configuration is incorrect.
* /23 is an invalid subnet mask for the 192.168.0.0 network.

28.
11
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme would be correct for the network?
* H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.18.0.11/16
H3-172.18.0.12/16
* H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.19.0.10/16
H3-172.18.0.11/16
* H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.18.0.11/16
H3-172.19.0.11/16
* H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.19.0.11/16
H3-172.19.0.11/16

29.
14
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new router to the network. The IP address 192.168.13.6/30 has been assigned to the connecting serial interface on R2. What IP address must the administrator assign to the serial interface of the new router?
* 192.168.13.4/30
* 192.168.13.5/30
* 192.168.13.7/30
* 192.168.13.58/30
* 192.168.13.61/27
* 192.168.13.63/27

30. After comparing a previous baseline to current network statistics, the network engineer has discovered a significant increase in unwarranted traffic to the extranet. Which two steps simplify administration and control the unwanted traffic? (Choose two.)
* define an ACL at the distribution layer to isolate packets
* add an ACL at the router in the enterprise edge to block the traffic
* deploy a Layer 3 switch to contain broadcasts
* connect remote locations directly to the intranet
* configure all hosts with the same default gateway to eliminate unnecessary broadcasts
* deploy one core ISP router to reduce the delay in path determination

31. Which statement is accurate about the CIR in Frame Relay?
* It is important to purchase a CIR that matches the highest bandwidth requirements of the enterprise.
* The CIR can be no lower than the port speed of the local loop.
* The CIR defines the contracted maximum rate available from the service provider on the Frame Relay circuit
* It is possible to burst over the CIR if bandwidth is available.

32. A sales representative is using a wireless connection to make a VoIP call. Which protocol will be used to transport the voice packets?
* TCP
* UDP
* PPP
* HDLC

33. A network administrator wants to deny responses to ping requests. Which ACL statement denies ping responses while not affecting other traffic?
* access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 80
* access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 20
* access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 21
* access-list 123 deny icmp any any echo-reply
* access-list 101 deny tcp any any established

34. Why would a network administrator want to limit the size of failure domains when designing a network?
* to eliminate the effects of Ethernet collisions
* to reduce the impact of a key device or service failure
* to reduce the impact of Internet congestion on critical traffic
* to eliminate the need to block broadcast packets at the edge of the local network

35. What are two benefits of implementing VLANs in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
* eliminates the need for a Layer 3 device
* provides segmentation of broadcast domains
* allows for the propagation of broadcasts from one local network to another
* allows for the logical grouping of devices despite physical location
* prevents issues such as broadcast storms by ensuring a loop free environment

36. Which three IP addresses are valid host addresses in the 10.200.0.0/20 network? (Choose three.)
* 10.200.11.69
* 10.200.16.1
* 10.200.0.255
* 10.201.0.55
* 10.200.15.240
* 10.200.30.29

37.
5
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the RIPv1 routing protocol is enabled and that all networks are being advertised, which statement is true?
* All packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2.
* None of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2.
* Approximately half the traffic from H1 that is destined to H2 will reach R3.
* Some of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will be sent to the switch that is connected to network 192.168.3.64/26.

38.
2
Refer to the exhibit. Which route will appear in the routing table?
* R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.10.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/1
* R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0
* R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/2] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0
* R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/3] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0
* R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0

39.
13
Refer to the exhibit. Server7 has been added to the server farm network. The hosts can ping Servers 2 and 3 and Server2 and Server3 can ping each other. Server7 cannot ping the other servers connected to the switch. What is the cause of this problem?
* The Fa0/1 port on the switch should be in access mode.
* The switch IP address is not on the same subnet as Server7.
* The switch port used for Server7 is not in the same VLAN as Server2 and Server3.
* The Fa0/0 interface of the router has not been configured for subinterfaces to support inter-VLAN routing.

40. What will be the two wildcard masks required in an extended access list statement that blocks traffic to host 192.168.5.45 from the 172.16.240.0/27 network? (Choose two.)
* 0.0.0.0 5
* 255.255.240.0
* 255.255.255.255
* 0.0.31.255
* 255.255.255.240
* 0.0.0.31

41. If a modem is being used to connect to an ISP, which WAN connection type is being used?
* leased line
* cell switched
* circuit switched
* packet switched

42.
3
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must manually summarize all IP addresses on the POP router for the ISP. Which one is the correct summary address?
* 192.168.0.0/22
* 192.168.0.0/23
* 192.168.0.0/24
* 192.168.0.0/25

43.
2
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is enabled and the network has completely converged. Which two routers will be designated as DROTHER routers? (Choose two.)
* R1
* R2
* R3
* R4

44.
7
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the displayed output? (Choose two.)
* A packet with a destination IP address of 172.20.1.14 will exit the router via the Serial 0/1/0n interface.
* The default administrative distance for EIGRP has been changed.
* Network 172.20.1.4 can be reached through two possible routes of equal cost.
* The addresses on this network were created using VLSM.
* The router connected to Serial 0/1/1 is advertising four separate routes through EIGRP to this router.

45.
4
Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be gathered from the output of this command? (Choose two.)
* 172.16.16.0/20 is a manually summarized route.
* All subnets are being advertised because default summarization was disabled.
* The output verifies that EIGRP is advertising only the networks in the same AS.
* The 172.16.1.0/24 network is directly attached to the router that produced this output.
* The Null0 interface indicates that this is not an actual path, but a summary for advertising purposes.

46.
7
Refer to the exhibit. What three facts represent the result of DR and BDR elections in this OSPF network? (Choose three.)
* RTC will be the DR of 10.5.0.0/30
* RTD will be the BDR of 10.5.0.0/30.
* RTD will be the DR of 10.4.0.0/28.
* RTB will be the BDR of 10.7.0.0/28.
* RTB will be the DR of 10.7.0.0/28.
* RTA will be the BDR of 10.4.0.0/28.

47.
12
Refer to the exhibit. Internet access is crucial for the company network shown. Internet access is provided by two ISPs. ISP1 is the primary provider and ISP2 is the backup provider. The network administrator configures BorderR as the border router so that in normal operations, all Internet traffic goes through ISP1. However, if the link to ISP1 fails, then BorderR will automatically forward Internet traffic to ISP2. The administrator configures two default routes:
BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.100.1 200
BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1
However, when the administrator issued the show ip route command to verify the configuration, only the second default route is in the routing table. Why is the first default route not showing?
* The first configuration command overwrites the second command.
* The first default route will be installed into the routing table if there is traffic with an IP address that is destined for the 192.168.100.0 network.
* This is expected because the link to ISP1 is active. If the link to ISP1 goes down, then the first default route will be installed into the routing table.
* The first default route cannot be installed into the routing table unless the administrator manually disables the second default route with the no ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1 command.

48.
17
Refer to the exhibit. If R4 is announcing all shown internal networks as a summary address to the ISP, which summary address will be most specific?
* 192.168.1.0/22
* 192.168.4.0/21
* 192.168.6.0/23
* 192.168.8.0/21
* 192.168.4.0/22

49. Which two statements are true about the native VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)
* It requires a special VLAN ID tag.
* It is unable to be changed to a different VLAN.
* Untagged traffic slows the switching process down
* The native VLAN defaults to VLAN 1 on Cisco Catalyst switches.
* Untagged frames that are received on a trunk become members of this VLAN

50.
13
Refer to the exhibit. A company has recently installed a new switch (S2) into their network.After several minutes, the network administrator notices that the new VLAN information is not being propagated to the new switch. Given the show vtp status command output, what is the possible problem that prevents the information from being received by the new switch?
* VTP version mismatch
* VTP domain name mismatch
* VTP revision number mismatch
* Time synchronization problems

51.
6
Refer to the exhibit. All routes in the exhibit are available to a router. Which two routes will be placed into the routing table? (Choose two.)
* A
* B
* C
* D
* E
* F

52.
12
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command: RouterA(config)# access-list 1 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255?
* It identifies traffic on all inside interfaces to be translated and given access to the ISP router.
* It identifies traffic from the fa0/1 interface to be translated and given access to the ISP router.
* It allows traffic from the ISP to reach all of the inside interfaces.
* It identifies traffic from the fa0/0 interface to be translated and given access to the ISP router
* It allows traffic from the ISP router to the fa0/1 interface.

53. The headquarters of a corporation uses static routes to connect to three branch offices. What are two advantages of using static routes for the WAN connections? (Choose two.)
* Static routes are more secure.
* Static routes converge faster.
* Static routes have higher administrative distances than dynamic routing protocols.
* The metrics of a static route need adjusting only if the bandwidth of the WAN connection changes.
* They are more stable and less susceptible to network changes in the interior gateway protocol.

54. What are two ways VLAN memberships can be created in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
* manually configuring the switch ports to be part of a VLAN
* allowing the user to choose a specific VLAN through a GUI menu
* configuring the switch to allow VLAN membership based on NetBIOS association
* implementing an access list that specifies which devices are placed into specific VLANs.
* associating MAC addresses to specific VLANs in a VLAN management policy server database
* manually configuring the host devices to be part of a VLAN

55. Which two statements are true about RIPv1 and RIPv2? (Choose two.)
* Both versions broadcast updates on port 520.
* Both versions send the subnet mask as part of the update.
* By default, both versions will receive RIPv1 and RIPv2 updates.
* Both versions support the features of split horizon and poison reverse
* By default, both versions automatically summarize routes.
* RIPv1 has a higher AD than RIPv2 has.

56. Which bandwidth allocation technique minimizes bandwidth waste by reallocating unused time slices to communicating users?
* VPN
* NCP
* TDM
* STP
* STDM

57.
9
Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by the Null0 route for the 128.107.0.0 network?
* a child route that is defined
* a parent route that is defined and sourced from a physical interface
* a summary route for advertising purposes, not an actual path
* the result of the no auto-summary command on a router

58. If an authentication protocol is configured for PPP operation, when is the client or user workstation authenticated?
* prior to link establishment
* during the link establishment phase
* before the network layer protocol configuration begins
* after the network layer protocol configuration has ended

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CCNA 3 Final