1 . A company is developing an Internet store for its website. Which protocol should be used to transfer credit card information from customers to the company web server?
• FTPS
• HTTP
• HTTPS
• WEP2
• TFTP

2.

Refer to the exhibit. A new branch office has been added to the corporate network and a new router is to be installed to allow branch office users to access the database server at headquarters. How should the serial 0/0/0 interface of the new branch office router be configured to connect to the headquarters router?
• branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.19 255.255.255.240
branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown
• branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation hdlc
branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.25 255.255.255.240
branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown
• branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown
• branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.33 255.255.255.240
• branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.21 255.255.255.240
branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown

3. Which two commands ensure that any password that permits access to the privileged EXEC mode is not shown in plain text when the configuration files are displayed? (Choose two.)
• Router(config)# enable secret cisco
• Router(config)# enable cisco
• Router(config)# encryption-password all
• Router(config)# enable login encrypted
• Router(config)# enable password encryption
• Router(config)# service password-encryption

4. A new network is to be configured on a router. Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure this interface and implement dynamic IP routing for the new network? (Choose three.)
• Select the routing protocol to be configured.
• Assign an IP address and subnet mask to the interface
• Update the ip host configuration information with the device name and new interface IP address.
• Configure the routing protocol with the new network IP address.
• Configure the routing protocol with the new interface IP address and subnet mask.
• Configure the routing protocol in use on all other enterprise routers with the new network information.

5. How does TCP ensure the reliable transfer of data?
• if data segments are not received from the source, the destination requests that the segments be resent.
• If an acknowledgment of the transmitted segments is not received from the destination in a predetermined amount of the time, the source resends the data. • TCP uses the SYN-ACK portion of the three-way handshake to ensure that all data has been received.
• The TCP Protocol Interpreter process verifies the transmitted data at source and destination.

6. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?
• routable translation
• dynamic translation
• static translation
• port address translation

7. What is the most commonly used exterior routing protocol?
• BGP
• RIP
• OSPF
• EIGRP

8.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure the router with a name. Which command will the administrator use to configure the router name?
• Router# ip hostname Boise
• Router# enable hostname Boise
• Router(config-line)# name Boise
• Router(config)# hostname Boise
• Router(config)# ip hostname Boise

9. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
• to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
• to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
• to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
• to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
• to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order

10. What is the purpose of the routing process?
• to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network
• to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks
• to convert a URL name into an IP address
• to provide secure Internet file transfer
• to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses

11. Which two statements are true about the use of the debug ip rip command on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)
• The debug ip rip command displays RIP routing activity in real time.
• The debug ip rip command can be issued at the user EXEC configuration mode.
• The debug ip rip command displays a combination of the information that is displayed by the show ip route and show ip protocols commands.
• Because of router processor usage, the debug ip rip command should be used only when necessary.
• The debug ip rip command should be used instead of the show ip route command whenever possible.

12. What minimum configurations must be set on a host to allow a request to be sent to http://www.cisco.com/? (Choose four.)
• DNS server
• WINS server
• IP address
• NetBIOS
• subnet mask
• default gateway

13. A Catalyst 2960 switch has been taken out of storage to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch that needs to be repaired. About a minute after the switch has started, the SYST LED on the front of the switch transitions from blinking green to amber. What is the meaning of the amber SYST LED?
• The switch has no configuration file in NVRAM.
• The switch has failed POST and must be sent for service.
• The switch is functioning properly.
• The switch is in half-duplex mode.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of cables and symbols is correct?
• A – crossover, B – straight-through, C – straight-through
• A – crossover, B – rollover, C – straight-through
• A – straight-through, B -crossover, C – straight-through
• A – straight-through, B -straight-through, C – straight-through
• A – straight-through, B – straight-through, C – crossover
• A – rollover, B – straight-through, C – straight-through

15. After an unsuccessful ping to the local router, the technician decides to investigate the router. The technician observes that the lights and fan on the router are not operational. In which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely occurring?
• transport
• network
• data link
• physical

16. What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
• exchanges datagrams unreliably
• is used to send IP error messages
• forces the retransmission of unacknowledged packets
• creates a virtual session between end-user applications
• carries the IP address of the destination host in the TCP header
• is responsible for breaking messages into segments and reassembling them at their destination

17.
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown is connected using services from the same ISP. How will the Fohi router dynamically learn routes to the 192.168.16.16/28, 192.168.16.32/28, and 192.168.16.64/28 subnetworks?
• with BGP
• with a static route
• with a directly connected route
• with an interior routing protocol

18.

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Host A to Switch1?
• rollover
• console
• crossover
• straight-through

19When customers use credit cards to make purchases at a small business, a modem is heard dialing a telephone number to transfer the transaction data to the central office. What type of WAN serial connection is in use?
• leased line
• packet switched
• circuit switched
• point-to-point

20. A user reports being unable to access the Internet. The help desk technician employs a bottom-up approach to troubleshooting. The technician first has the user check the patch cable connection from the PC to the wall, and then has the user verify that the NIC has a green link light. What will the technician have the user do next?
• Enter an IP address into the WWW browser address bar to see if DNS is at fault.
• Use traceroute to identify the device along the path to the ISP that may be at fault.
• Verify the IP address, subnet, and gateway settings using ipconfig on the PC .
• Connect to the user home router to check firewall settings for blocked TCP ports.

21.

A ping 192.1.1.20 command is issued on workstation A to determine if workstation B can be reached. What events will occur if this command is successful? (Choose two.)
• The router will block the ping request message.
• The router will reply to the echo request with a proxy ping response.
• Workstation A will send a UDP ping request message to workstation B.
• Workstation B will send a UDP ping reply message to workstation A.
• Workstation A will send an ICMP echo request message to workstation B.
• Workstation B will send an ICMP echo reply message to workstation A.

22. How does a router know of paths to destination networks? (Choose two.)
• inspection of the destination IP address in data packets
• ARP requests from connected routers
• manual configuration of routes
• updates from other routers
• DHCP information broadcasts
• updates from the SMTP management information base

23.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the data conversation shown? (Choose two.)
• The data conversation was started by the HTTP application process running on the client.
• The data conversation is identified by TCP port 80 on the client.
• The user started the data conversation by sending an e-mail.
• The IP address of the Internet server is 192.168.17.43 .
• The Internet server will send data to port 8547 on the client.

24. What is one purpose of the TCP three-way handshake?
• sending echo requests from the source to the destination host to establish the presence of the destination
• determining the IP address of the destination host in preparation for data transfer
• requesting the destination to transfer a binary file to the source
• synchronizing sequence numbers between source and destination in preparation for data transfer

25. Which type of address is 192.168.17.111/28?
• host address
• network address
• broadcast address
• multicast address

26. A customer reports connectivity problems to an ISP technician. Upon questioning the customer, the technician discovers that all network applications are functioning except for FTP. What should the technician suspect is the problem?
• misconfigured firewall
• bad port on switch or hub
• misconfigured IP addressing on the customer’s workstation
• wrong DNS server configured on the customer’s workstation
• wrong default gateway configured on the customer’s workstation

27.

The show ip route command was executed on one of the routers shown in the graphic and the following output was displayed:
C 192.168.4.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0
R 192.168.5.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.4.2, 00:00:19, Serial0/0
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1
C 192.168.3.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/1
From which router was this command executed?
• A
• B
• C
• D

28. Refer to the exhibit. Which two sets of commands are required to configure passwords for all management ports on a Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose two.)
• ALSwitch(config)# interface vlan 1
ALSwitch(config-if)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-if)# login
• ALSwitch(config)# line vty 0 4
ALSwitch(config-line)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-line)# login
• ALSwitch(config)# line vty 0 15
ALSwitch(config-line)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-line)# login
• ALSwitch(config)# enable secret class
ALSwitch(config)# enable password cisco
• ALSwitch(config)# interface fa0/1
ALSwitch(config-if)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-if)# no shutdown
• ALSwitch(config)# line cons 0
ALSwitch(config-line)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-line)# login

29. A user reports being able to access the Internet but not being able to download e-mail from the mail server at the ISP. What should the user check on the user workstation?
• the POP3 and SMTP server settings in the e-mail application
• the patch cable connections at the back of the workstation and at the wall plate
• the DHCP settings in the operating system
• the IP address, mask, and default gateway values
• the NIC drivers

30.

Refer to the graphic. Which command will configure a static route on Router A to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?
• RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.5.2
• RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2
• RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2
• RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1
• RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.2 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.0

31. Which subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.)
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.192.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.192.0.0
• 240.0.0.0
• 255.0.0.0

32.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the RTA and RTB interfaces. In order to allow hosts that are attached to RTA to reach the server that is attached to RTB, a static route from RTA to the server LAN and a default route from RTB back to RTA need to be configured. Which two commands will the administrator use to accomplish these tasks on the two routers? (Choose two.)
• RTA(config)# ip route 10.16.10.5 255.255.255.252 10.16.10.6
• RTA(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.16.10.6
• RTA(config)# ip route 10.16.10.96 255.255.255.252 10.16.10.6
• RTB(config)# ip route 10.16.10.6 255.255.255.248 10.16.10.6
• RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1
• RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.16.10.6

33. How do port filtering and access lists help provide network security?
• They prevent specified types of traffic from reaching specified network destinations.
• They alert network administrators to various type of denial of service attacks as they occur.
• They prevent viruses, worms, and Trojans from infecting host computers and servers.
• They enable encryption and authentication of confidential data communications.

34.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of the building in the graphic needs to choose the type of cable best suited to add ServerB to the network. Which cable type is the best choice?
• STP
• UTP
• coaxial
• fiber optic

35. What is used by a routing protocol to determine the best path to include in the routing table?
• Convergence time
• Default distance
• Metric
• Type of router

36.

Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addresses could be assigned to the hosts in the diagram? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.65.31
• 192.168.65.32
• 192.168.65.35
• 192.168.65.60
• 192.168.65.63
• 192.168.65.64

37.

Given the network 192.168.25.0 shown in the graphic, which subnet mask would accommodate the number of hosts in each subnet?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.224.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248

38. Which two protocols allow network devices to report their status and events to a centralized network management device? (Choose two.)
• Syslog
• Telnet
• HTTP
• HTTPS
• SNMP

39. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
• PAT uses the word “overload” at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.
• Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.
• Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.
• PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.

40.

Refer to the exhibit. The graphic shows the output of a command issued on router RTB. According to the output, what two statements are true of router RTB? (Choose two.)
• The router is connected to a router named Boise.
• Router RTB is connected to a Cisco 1841 router.
• Router RTB is directly connected to two other routers.
• The IP address of the router interface connected to router RTB is 192.168.2.6 .
• The RTB router is connected to two Cisco devices by Fast Ethernet links.

41.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the command below to configure a default route to the ISP network : RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.6 A ping issued from the ISP is successful to router RTB. However, ping echo request packets arrive at a host that is attached to the Fa0/0 interface of RTB, and the replies do not make it back to the ISP router. What will fix this problem?
• The ISP must be configured to forward packets from the 192.168.1.0 network.
• The ip route command needs to be edited so that the next hop address is 10.1.1.5.
• The ip route command needs to be edited so that the 192.168.1.1 address is the next hop address.
• The ip route command should be removed from the RTB router configuration.

42. A network technician is using a network management station to gather data about the performance of devices and links within the ISP. Which application layer protocol makes this possible?
• SNMP
• FTP
• DHCP
• SMTP

43. What are two purposes of DNS? (Choose two.)
• to dynamically assign IP addressing information to network hosts
• to simplify the administration of host and default gateway addressing on client computers
• to assign TCP port numbers to hosts as part of the data transfer process
• to resolve human-readable domain names to numeric IP addresses
• to replace the static HOSTS file with a more practical dynamic system

44. A hacker attempts to reach confidential information that is stored on a server inside the corporate network. A network security solution inspects the entire packet, determines that it is a threat, and blocks the packet from entering the inside network. Which security measure protected the network?
• an IDS
• an IPS
• a host-based firewall
• Anti-X software

45. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
• 30
• 256
• 2046
• 2048
• 4094
• 4096

46. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
• destination network address
• source network address
• source MAC address
• well known port destination address

47. A small tire retailer requires a low-cost WAN connection to its headquarters in order to manage its inventory and process customer sales in real time. Which WAN connection type is best suited to its needs?
• Sonet
• T3
• dialup
• DSL
• leased line

48. The command copy tftp running-config has been entered on the router. What will this command do?
• copy the configuration in RAM to a server
• copy the configuration file from a server to RAM
• copy the configuration file in NVRAM to RAM
• copy the configuration file in NVRAM to a server
• copy the configuration file from a server to NVRAM

49.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure the Fa0/0 interface of RTB so that hosts from RTA can connect to the server that is attached to RTB. Which two commands will the administrator use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
• RTB# ip address 192.168.102.98 255.255.255.248
• RTB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.102.99 255.255.255.252
• RTB(config)# ip address 192.168.102.97 255.255.255.252
• RTB(config)# no shutdown
• RTB(config-if)# no shutdown
• RTB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.102.97 255.255.255.252

50.

Refer to the exhibit. A NOC technician at an ISP enters the command shown. What are two reasons to use this command? (Choose two.)
• to map the path to 192.168.1.7
• to test reachability to 192.168.1.7
• to locate connectivity problems along the route to 192.168.1.7
• to identify the ISPs that interconnect the NOC with the remote host with the address 192.168.1.7
• to measure the time that packets take to reach 192.168.1.7 and return to the technician’s workstation

source : ccna-ccnp-ccsp-ccie

1. Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.)
• improved physical security
• centralized cable management

2. Which three issues should be noted on the technician’s site survey report? (Choose three.)
• unlabeled cables
• poor physical security of network devices
• lack of UPS for critical devices

3. Which two types of cable are used for initial router configuration? (Choose two.)
• rollover cable
• console cable

4. In addition to the inventory sheet, what other information about the hosts and networking equipment should be documented by the on-site technician while performing the site survey?
• any planned growth anticipated in the near future

5.

Refer to the exhibit. What type of device is used to connect two networks?
• router

6. It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is “five-9s”. What is meant by this?
• A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time.

7. What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.)
• the path that the data takes through a network
• the device names and Layer 3 addressing information
• the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering

8. Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains?
• router

9. Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the customer before beginning the network design?
• to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans for expansion

10. A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to suit growing network demands. What type of device will suit this requirement?
• a networking device with a modular physical configuration

11. What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network?
• reliability

12. What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router?
• An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device.

13. Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.)
• switches and routers
• network equipment racks
• the point of presence

14. What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.)
• can guarantee up to 99.999% availability
• increases availability of help desk services

15. A manufacturing company is in the process of a network upgrade. Which two statements are true about the phases of the upgrade process? (Choose two.)
• Phase 1 is used to determine network requirements.
• Phase 3 is based on an implementation schedule that allows extra time for unexpected events.

16. When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite technician perform? (Choose two.)
• investigate and document the physical layout of the premises
• perform a site survey to document the existing network structure

17. What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the customer network physically connects to the Internet through a telecommunications service provider?
• point of presence

18.

to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each device?
• A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover

19. In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an ISP for a network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the customer? (Choose two.)
• Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable.
• The company will not need to spend a large amount of money to purchase the equipment upfront.

20. Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective layers including PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering?
• coaxial

21. What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the current telecommunications room?
• IDF
learning-ccna.blogspot.com

learn-ccna.com

1 Why is it important to create standards for network consistency? (Choose three.)

reduces network complexity *

increases unplanned downtime

limits unplanned downtime *

increases bandwidth by regulating networking performance

limits events that may impact network performance *

2 A telnet session can be established when using the IP address of a router but not the name of the router. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?

an incorrect host table entry *

an incorrect ARP table entry

an incorrect routing table entry

an incorrect protocol configured

an incorrect subnet mask

3

The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)

Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0

Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown *

Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224 *

Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000 *

Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

4 Which commands display information about the IOS or configuration files stored in router memory? (Choose three.)

Router# show ram

Router# show flash *

Router# show hosts

Router# show history

Router# show version *

Router# show startup-config *

5 Select the interface descriptions that provide the most appropriate information. (Choose two.)

circuit number

host IP address *

telnet password *

number of hops between routers

purpose and location of the interface

6 Select the commands necessary to remove any existing configuration on a router. (Choose two.)

delete flash

erase startup-config *

erase running-config *

restart

reload

delete NVRAM

7 Router names are associated with IP addresses. What is the name of the table that is created by this association?

IP table

SAP table

ARP table

MAC table

HOST table *

RARP table

8 Select the commands that will store the current configuration file to a network TFTP server? (Choose two.)

Router# copy run tftp

Router# copy tftp run

Router# copy running-config tftp *

Router# copy tftp running-config *

Router(config)# copy running-config tftp

Router(config)# copy tftp running-config

9 Which statements are true regarding the recommended use of login banners? (Choose two.)

They should be used to display information regarding system changes or maintenance. *

They should be used to display warnings to unauthorized users. *

They should be used to display welcome messages prior to login.

They should be seen only by system administrators.

They should provide confirmation of incoming IP addresses.

10 What is the effect of the command ip host HQ 192.1.1.1?

permits a ping to 192.1.1.1 with the command ping HQ

assigns the description HQ to the interface with the ip address 192.1.1.1

renames the router as HQ

defines a static route to the host 192.1.1.1

configures the remote device HQ with the ip address of 192.1.1.1 *

11 What are the default settings for a serial interface? (Choose three.)

DTE *

DCE

shutdown *

no IP address *

clock rate 56000

encapsulation ARPA

12 What will be the response from the router after the command, “router(config)# hostname portsmouth” is entered?

portsmouth#

portsmouth(config)# *

invalid input detected

router(config-host)#

hostname = portsmouth

portsmouth#

? command not recognized

router(config)#

13 A network administrator wants to assure that any password that permits access to the privileged EXEC mode is not shown in plain text in the configuration files. Which commands will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

Router(config)#enable cisco secret

Router(config)#enable cisco

Router(config)#service password-encryption *

Router(config)#enable secret cisco *

Router(config)#encrypt-all cisco

Router(config)#service encryption-password

14 Which command sequence will permit access to all five router virtual terminal lines with a password of cisco?

Router(config-line)#config telnet

Router(config-line)# line vty 0 5

Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config)# line vty 0 4

Router(config)# password cisco

Router(config)# line vty 0 4*

Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config-line)# login

Router(config-line)# config telnet

Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config-line)# sessions 0 4

15 An IP network is to be added to a router Ethernet interface. What steps must be performed to configure this interface to allow connectivity to the hosts on this LAN? (Choose two.)

Enter the command no shutdown. *

A password must be set on the interface.

The interface DCE clock rate must be set.

The interface must be configured for virtual terminal access.

The interface must be configured with an IP address and subnet mask. *

The router must be put in setup mode in order for the interface to be configured.

16 What is the default state of the interfaces on a router?

up, line protocol down

down, line protocol down *

adminstratively down, line protocol down

up, line protocol up

17 Which are valid router prompts? (Choose three.)

Router(privileged)#

Router(config)# *

Router(command)#

Router(config-router)# *

Router(config-if)# *

Router(exec)#

18 Select the correct sequence of commands that will configure “Engineering LAN” as the interface description on the Ethernet0 interface.

1)Router# configure terminal

Router(config)# interface e0 description Engineering LAN

2)Router# configure terminal*

Router(config)# interface e0

Router(config-if)# description Engineering LAN

3)Router# configure terminal

Router(config)# interface e0

Router(config-if)# interface description Engineering LAN

4)Router# configure terminal

Router(config)# description Engineering LAN

19 Select the recommended locations to save a running-config file. (Choose three.)

all network hosts

network server *

floppy disk *

TFTP server *

server that is not on the network

20 Which command turns on a router interface?

Router(config-if)# enable

Router(config-if)# no down

Router(config-if)# s0 active

Router(config-if)# interface up

Router(config-if)# no shutdown *

21 Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)

VTY interface *

console interface *

Ethernet interface

secret EXEC mode

privileged EXEC mode *

router configuration mode

22 What must be configured to establish a serial link between two routers that are directly connected?

a clock rate on the DTE interface

a no clock rate command on the DTE interface

no configuration is required

a clock rate on the DCE interface *

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0 nhận xétCCNA 2 MODULE 3, CCNA Semester 2

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1. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)
• whenever the network topology changes
• upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

2. Refer to the exhibit. When RouterD is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?
• It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

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3. What two statements correctlydescribe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)
• each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighborsall routers in the area have identical link state databases.

4. What is the final step in the link state routing process?
• SPF computes best path to each destination network

5. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?
• cost of the link

6. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
• splitting routing topologies into smaller areas

7. To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)
• build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link.
• flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database.
• construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network.

8. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
• updates triggered by network changes

9. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
• Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.

10. What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
• Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
• After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.

11. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
• Dijkstra

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?
• BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost

13. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?
• link-state database

14. When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?
• when a link goes up or down

15. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)
• IS-IS
• OSPF

16. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
• sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS

17. A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?
• OSPF

18. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?
• floods the LSP to neighbors

19. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?
• B and C

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1. Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.)
- The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI model.
- The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual protocols.
- The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.
- The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection.
- The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers.

2. To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on what two factors? (Choose two.)
- accessibility
- adaptability
- availability
- reliability
- scalability

3. User1 is sending an e-mail to User2@cisco.com. What are two characteristics of the process of sending this data? (Choose two.)
- It utilizes TCP port 110.
- A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client computers in order to send the e-mail message.
- It utilizes a store and forward process.
- The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from the destination server.
- SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.

4. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?
- Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2.
- Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2.
- Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2.
- Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1.
- Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1.
- Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.

5. What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.)
- Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.
- Reliability is measured as a percent.
- Reliability is the responsibility of the ISP customers.
- Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.
- The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability.-
6. Which two statements describe the FTP protocol? (Choose two.)
- It uses well-known port 23.
- The protocol interpreter is responsible for the data transfer function.
- In passive data connections, the FTP client initiates the transfer of data.
- It requires two connections between client and server.
- FTP servers open a well-known port on the client machine.

7. What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake?
- It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination hosts.
- It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data.
- It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers.
- It identifies the destination application on the receiving host.

8. What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.)
- It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses.
- It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link layers.
- It supports authentication.
- It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows.
- It encrypts packets with SSL.
- It requires additional server processing time.
9. Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name?
- dynamic lookup
- forward lookup
- resolution lookup
- reverse lookup
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10.

What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource records with a DNS server whenever changes occur?
- dynamic
- zone transfer
- local recursive query
- root domain query
- top-level domain query
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.)
- If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically.
- The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10.
- If the ping www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Ciscoweb server IP address efore DNS is queried.
-The file must be created by the user if it is to be used by a workstation.
- Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from DNS.

12. Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.)
- maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries
- maintaining the ISP server
- mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
- forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server
- forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet-
13. What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)
- connection oriented
- full-duplex operation
- low overhead
- no flow control
- no error-recovery function
- reliable transmission

14. A manufacturing company is looking into subscribing to services from a new ISP. The company requires hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail services. Which three protocols represent the key application services that are required by the company? (Choose three.)
- FTP
- HTTP
- ICMP
- PPP
- Telnet
- SMTP
15. Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose two.)
- DNS – 25
- FTP – 110
- HTTP – 80
- POP3 – 25
- SMTP – 25
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16. Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair?
- source port with destination port
- source IP address with destination port
- source IP address and destination IP address
- source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port
17. Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server to another server?
- SNMP
- FTP
- SMTP
- HTTP
18. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request?
- Source – 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination – 192.168.2.39:80
- Source – 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination – 192.168.2.39:1045
- Source – 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination – 192.168.2.39:80
- Source – 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination – 192.168.2.39:1061

19. What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP?
- caching-only
- root
- second-level
- top-level
20. A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network. How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client?
- The server will apply the default service configured in directory services.
- The server will use ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router.
- The server will send a request to the client asking for the appropriate service.
- The server will determine the appropriate service from the destination port field.
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21.

When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the same time, which of the following will have the same value for each session? (Choose two.)
- IP address
- MAC address
- session number
- sequence number

1. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
• reduced routing table size
• reduced routing update traffic

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are shown in the exhibit?
• 192.168.4.15/29

3. In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?

• 84

4. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• 32-bit address
• Subnet mask

5. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
• 255.255.255.252

6. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
• utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space

7. Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
• OSPF
• RIP v2
• EIGRP

8. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
• the shortage of IP addresses

9. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:
1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2….successful
2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2….successful
3. pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network….successful
4. pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2….successful
5. pings from R2 to host B….successful.
What is the likely cause of the failure of the ping from R1 to host B?
• The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.

10. A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA, Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)
• 255.255.255.224 for Sales
• 255.255.255.240 for QA

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
• 192.168.0.0/21

12. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
• /27

13. Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?
• 192.168.2.130/25

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14. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied if Router A sends a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0 to Router B?
• 24

15. Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?
• 29

16. An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
• 192.1.1.224/28

17. What is a supernet?
• a summarization of classful addresses

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from 10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing scheme?
• The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.

19. A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table. What range of networks are summarized by this route?
• 192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24

20. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?
• CIDR