1. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)
• whenever the network topology changes
• upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

2. Refer to the exhibit. When RouterD is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?
• It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

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3. What two statements correctlydescribe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)
• each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighborsall routers in the area have identical link state databases.

4. What is the final step in the link state routing process?
• SPF computes best path to each destination network

5. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?
• cost of the link

6. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
• splitting routing topologies into smaller areas

7. To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)
• build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link.
• flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database.
• construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network.

8. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
• updates triggered by network changes

9. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
• Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.

10. What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
• Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
• After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.

11. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
• Dijkstra

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?
• BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost

13. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?
• link-state database

14. When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?
• when a link goes up or down

15. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)
• IS-IS
• OSPF

16. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
• sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS

17. A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?
• OSPF

18. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?
• floods the LSP to neighbors

19. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?
• B and C

1. Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.)
- The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI model.
- The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual protocols.
- The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.
- The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection.
- The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers.

2. To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on what two factors? (Choose two.)
- accessibility
- adaptability
- availability
- reliability
- scalability

3. User1 is sending an e-mail to User2@cisco.com. What are two characteristics of the process of sending this data? (Choose two.)
- It utilizes TCP port 110.
- A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client computers in order to send the e-mail message.
- It utilizes a store and forward process.
- The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from the destination server.
- SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.

4. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?
- Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2.
- Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2.
- Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2.
- Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1.
- Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1.
- Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.

5. What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.)
- Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.
- Reliability is measured as a percent.
- Reliability is the responsibility of the ISP customers.
- Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.
- The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability.-
6. Which two statements describe the FTP protocol? (Choose two.)
- It uses well-known port 23.
- The protocol interpreter is responsible for the data transfer function.
- In passive data connections, the FTP client initiates the transfer of data.
- It requires two connections between client and server.
- FTP servers open a well-known port on the client machine.

7. What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake?
- It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination hosts.
- It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data.
- It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers.
- It identifies the destination application on the receiving host.

8. What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.)
- It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses.
- It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link layers.
- It supports authentication.
- It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows.
- It encrypts packets with SSL.
- It requires additional server processing time.
9. Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name?
- dynamic lookup
- forward lookup
- resolution lookup
- reverse lookup
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10.

What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource records with a DNS server whenever changes occur?
- dynamic
- zone transfer
- local recursive query
- root domain query
- top-level domain query
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.)
- If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically.
- The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10.
- If the ping www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Ciscoweb server IP address efore DNS is queried.
-The file must be created by the user if it is to be used by a workstation.
- Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from DNS.

12. Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.)
- maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries
- maintaining the ISP server
- mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
- forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server
- forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet-
13. What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)
- connection oriented
- full-duplex operation
- low overhead
- no flow control
- no error-recovery function
- reliable transmission

14. A manufacturing company is looking into subscribing to services from a new ISP. The company requires hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail services. Which three protocols represent the key application services that are required by the company? (Choose three.)
- FTP
- HTTP
- ICMP
- PPP
- Telnet
- SMTP
15. Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose two.)
- DNS – 25
- FTP – 110
- HTTP – 80
- POP3 – 25
- SMTP – 25
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16. Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair?
- source port with destination port
- source IP address with destination port
- source IP address and destination IP address
- source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port
17. Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server to another server?
- SNMP
- FTP
- SMTP
- HTTP
18. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request?
- Source – 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination – 192.168.2.39:80
- Source – 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination – 192.168.2.39:1045
- Source – 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination – 192.168.2.39:80
- Source – 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination – 192.168.2.39:1061

19. What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP?
- caching-only
- root
- second-level
- top-level
20. A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network. How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client?
- The server will apply the default service configured in directory services.
- The server will use ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router.
- The server will send a request to the client asking for the appropriate service.
- The server will determine the appropriate service from the destination port field.
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21.

When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the same time, which of the following will have the same value for each session? (Choose two.)
- IP address
- MAC address
- session number
- sequence number

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are shown in the exhibit?
• 192.168.4.15/29

3. In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?

• 84

4. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• 32-bit address
• Subnet mask

5. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
• 255.255.255.252

6. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
• utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space

7. Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
• OSPF
• RIP v2
• EIGRP

8. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
• the shortage of IP addresses

9. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:
1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2….successful
2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2….successful
3. pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network….successful
4. pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2….successful
5. pings from R2 to host B….successful.
What is the likely cause of the failure of the ping from R1 to host B?
• The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.

10. A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA, Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)
• 255.255.255.224 for Sales
• 255.255.255.240 for QA

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
• 192.168.0.0/21

12. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
• /27

13. Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?
• 192.168.2.130/25

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14. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied if Router A sends a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0 to Router B?
• 24

15. Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?
• 29

16. An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
• 192.1.1.224/28

17. What is a supernet?
• a summarization of classful addresses

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from 10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing scheme?
• The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.

19. A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table. What range of networks are summarized by this route?
• 192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24

20. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?
• CIDR

1. vIn what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
• SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
• SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser.
• SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices.
• SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.
• SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration.
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2. Which mode will a configured router display at login?
• global configuration mode
• setup mode
• ROM monitor mode
• user EXEC mode

3.

Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of the configuration that is shown?
• virtual terminal only
• enable mode only
• console and virtual terminal only
• enable mode and virtual terminal
• only the service password
• all configured passwords

4.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to the Switch1 console over Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.66 255.255.255.192
• Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown
• Switch1(config)# line vty 0 4
Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
• Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
• Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.2.65

5. How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?
• blinks rapidly amber
• blinks rapidly green
• steady amber
• steady green

6.

Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
• X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254
• X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0

7. A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command will allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the changes?
• router# show running-config
• router# show startup-config
• router# show flash
• router# show version

8. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
• VTY interface
• console interface
• Ethernet interface
• secret EXEC mode
• privileged EXEC mode
• router configuration mode

9. To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination?
• Tab
• Ctrl-P
• Ctrl-N
• Up Arrow
• Right Arrow
• Down Arrow

10. What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to ‘LAB_A’?
• Router> enable
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
• Router> enable
Router# hostname LAB_A
• Router> enable
Router# configure router
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
• Router> enable
Router(config)# host name LAB_A
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11.

Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?
• Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop.
• Telnet to the switch from the router console.
• Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.
• The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection to check these settings.

12. Which two options must be selected in SDM Express to enable a router serial interface to obtain an IP address automatically? (Choose two.)
• Easy IP (IP negotiated)
• IP unnumbered
• No IP address
• HDLC encapsulation
• Frame Relay encapsulation
• PPP encapsulation

13. What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.)
• host name
• DHCP options
• domain name
• interface IP addresses
• enable secret password
• DNS server IP addresses

14. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
• View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
• Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
• Set the command history buffer size.
• Recall previously entered commands.
• Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

15. What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet?
• host name
• domain name
• DHCP address pool
• DNS server IP address

16. Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)
• ATM
• CHAP
• Frame Relay
• HDLC
• PAP
• PPP

17. Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?
• Router# show ip interfaces
• Router# show ip connections
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show ip networks

18. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
• console
• AUX
• Telnet
• modem

19. Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
• platform
• routing protocol
• connected interface of neighbor device
• device ID
• IP addresses of all interfaces
• enable mode password

20.

Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
• transmission of data
• reception of data
• clocking for the synchronous link
• noise cancellation in transmitted data

21. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
• stores the routing table
• retains contents when power is removed
• stores the startup configuration file
• contains the running configuration file
• stores the ARP table
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22.

Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will enable users who are attached to Router1 to access the remote server?
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
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23. A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?
• The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch.
• There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.
• The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC.
• The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch.

24. Which of the following statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
• All router commands are available.
• Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
• A password can be entered to allow access to other modes.
• Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
• Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

25. Which command turns on a router interface?
• Router(config-if)# enable
• Router(config-if)# no down
• Router(config-if)# s0 active
• Router(config-if)# interface up
• Router(config-if)# no shutdown

1. Which two functions are provided by the upper layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• initiating the network communication process
• encrypting and compressing data for transmission

2. Which is a function of the transport layer of the OSI model?
• formats and encodes data for transmission

3. Which common Layer 1 problem can cause a user to lose connectivity?
• loose network cable

4. Which three command line utilities are most commonly used to troubleshoot issues at Layer 3? (Choose three.)
• ping
• ipconfig
• Traceroute

5. Which address is used by the router to direct a packet between networks?
• destination IP address

6. What is the correct encapsulation order when data is passed from Layer 1 up to Layer 4 of the OSI model?
• bits, frames, packets, segments

7. What are two goals of the ISP help desk? (Choose two.)
• network optimization
• customer retention

8. In what two ways do Level 1 and Level 2 help desk technicians attempt to solve a customer’s problems? (Choose three.)
• talking to the customer on the telephone
• using various web tools
• with remote desktop sharing applications

9. A customer calls the help desk about setting up a new PC and cable modem and being unable to access the Internet. What three questions would the technician ask if the bottom-up troubleshooting approach is used? (Choose three.)
• Is the NIC link light blinking?
• Is the network cable properly attached to the modem?
• Is the Category 5 cable properly connected to the network slot on the PC?

10. A customer calls to report a problem accessing an e-commerce web site. The help desk technician begins troubleshooting using a top-down approach. Which question would the technician ask the customer first?
• Can you access other web sites?

11. Which statement describes the process of escalating a help desk trouble ticket?
• When the problem is solved, all information is recorded on the trouble ticket for future reference.

12. What are two functions of the physical layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• converting data to bits
• signal generation

13. A customer calls the ISP help desk after setting up a new PC with a cable modem but being unable to access the Internet. After the help desk technician has verified Layer 1 and Layer 2, what are three questions the help desk technician should ask the customer? (Choose three.)
• What is your subnet mask?
• What is your IP address?
• Can you ping the default gateway?

14. Which scenario represents a problem at Layer 4 of the OSI model?
• A firewall filtering traffic addressed to TCP port 25 on an email server.

15. What are two basic procedures of incident management? (Choose two.)
• opening a trouble ticket
• adhering to a problem-solving strategy

16. Which level of support is supplied by an ISP when providing managed services?
• Level 3

17. What is the first step that is used by a help desk technician in a systematic approach to helping a customer solve a problem?
• define the problem

18. A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI model. Which question would provide further information about the problem?
• Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?
• Can you ping http://www.cisco.com?

19. An ISP help desk technician receives a call from a customer who reports that no one at their business can reach any websites, or get their e-mail. After testing the communication line and finding everything fine, the technician instructs the customer to run nslookup from the command prompt. What does the technician suspect is causing the customer’s problem?
• failure of DNS to resolve names to IP addresses

20. Which layers of the OSI model are commonly referred to as the upper layers?
• application, presentation, session

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2. What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by medium- to large-sized businesses? (Choose three.)
• metro Ethernet
• T1
• T3

3. What is the maximum T1 transmission speed?
• 1.544 Mbps

4. Which of the following start the test of destination reachability?
• echo request issued by source

5. Which statement describes a function of a Tier 1 ISP?
• peers with other similarly sized ISPs to form the global Internet backbone

6. At which point do individuals and small businesses connect directly to the ISP network to obtain Internet access?
• at a POP

7. What information is contained in the numbered RFCs maintained by the IETF?
• the specifications and rules for how devices communicate over an IP network

8. Which network support services team is responsible for testing a new customer connection and for monitoring the ongoing operation of the link?”
• network operations

9. Which network support services team identifies whether the client site has existing network hardware and circuits installed?
• planning and provisioning

10. Which ISP network support systems team will typically contact the customer once a new circuit is ready and guide the customer in setting up passwords and other account information?
• help desk

11. What feature allows network devices to be scalable?
• modularity

12. Which command generated this output?
• Router# traceroute 34.0.0.4

13. Which network utility helps determine the location of network problems and identifies routers that packets travel across?
• traceroute

14. What interconnects the Internet backbone?
• IXPs

15. What units are used to measure Internet bandwidth?
• bits per second

16. The IT manager of a medium-sized business wishes to house the company-owned web servers in a facility that offers round-the-clock controlled access, redundant power, and high-bandwidth Internet access. Which ISP service will fulfill this need?
• equipment colocation

17. What is the purpose of an RFC?
• to document the development and approval of an Internet standard

18. When did the Internet become available for use by businesses and consumers?
• 1991

19. What was the original purpose of the Internet?
• research

20. What three support service teams are commonly found within an ISP? (Choose three.)
• help desk
• network operations center
• planning and provisioning