1. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?

• administrative distance of 0 and metric of 0
• administrative distance of 0 and metric of 1
• administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0
• administrative distance of 1 and metric of 1

2. What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?

• 172.16.0.0/21
• 172.16.1.0/22
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.255.248
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.252.0

3. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?

• 192.1.1.0/26 and 192.1.1.64/27
• 192.1.1.128/25
• 192.1.1.0/23 and 192.1.1.64/23
• 192.1.1.0/24
• 192.1.1.0/25
• 192.1.1.0/24 and 192.1.1.64/24

4. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?

• It indicates that there are 8 hops between this router and the 10.0.0.0 network.
• It represents the time, in milliseconds, it takes for a ping to reply when sent to the 10.0.0.0 network.
• It indicates that there are 8 subnets in the destination network to which the router can forward packets.
• It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.

5. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?

• Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.
• Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/1.
• There is no matching interface associated with network 172.16.0.0 so packets will be dropped.
• There is no matching interface associated with network 172.16.0.0 so packets will take gateway of last resort and exit out S0/2.

6. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?

• drops the packet because the destination host is not listed in the routing table
• looks up the MAC address of the S0/1/0 interface to determine the destination MAC address of the new frame
• performs a recursive lookup for the IP address of the S0/1/0 interface before forwarding the packet
• encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface

7. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?

• The rate would be negotiated by both routers.
• A rate would not be selected due to the DCE/DTE connection mismatch.
• The rate configured on the DTE determines the clock rate.
• The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?

• WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
• WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 198.18.222.0 255.255.255.255 s0/1
• WinterPark(config)# ip route 172.191.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.1
  WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
• WinterPark(config)# ip route 172.191.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.1
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0

9. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)

• ping
• show arp
• traceroute
• show ip route
• show interface
• show cdp neighbor detail

10. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?

• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
  R2(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
  R2(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
  R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
  R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
• R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.2.1
  R2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1

11. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
load

• platform
• reliability
• holdtime
• local interface

12. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)

• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
• A (config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/0/0
• B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0
• B (config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.40.1
• B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/1/0

13. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)

• A(config)# no network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
• A(config)# no ip address 10.0.0.1 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
• A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s0/0/0
• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

14. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?

• The route is removed from the table.
• The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
• The route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
• The router redirects the static route to compensate for the loss of the next hop device.

15. A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)

• The destination network no longer exists.
• The destination network is moved to a different interface on the same router.
• The path between the source and destination is upgraded with a higher bandwidth link.
• A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.
• The remote destination network interface has to be down for 15 minutes of maintenance.

16. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?

• Adding the next-hop address eliminates the need for the router to do any lookups in the routing table before forwarding a packet.
• In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.
• Using a next-hop address in a static route provides a route with a lower metric.
• In multi-access networks, using a next-hop address in a static route makes that route a candidate default route.

17. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:

Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.

What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?

• Serial0/1 is shutdown.
• There is no cable connecting the routers.
• The remote router is using serial 0/0.
• No clock rate has been set.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?

• ip route 192.168.0.0 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

19. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).

• the serial port of the router
• a modem
• a switch
• the ethernet port of the router
• a CSU/DSU device
• a DTE device

20. Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?

• CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.
• By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
• If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP information.
• Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.

21. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)

• It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
• It operates at the network layer and allows two systems to learn about each other.
• It creates a topology map of the entire network.
• It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.
• It forwards advertisements about routes for faster convergence.

22. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?

• Interface speed and duplex
• Interface MTU
• Errors
• Interface MAC address
• Interface IP address

source : nho.cc

1. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

• Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
• Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
• Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
• Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

• Network layer
• Transport layer
• Physical layer
• Application layer
• Session layer
• Data-link layer

3. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

• the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
• the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
• the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
• the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
• the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
• the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable

4. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)

• addressing
• error detection
• frame delimiting
• port identification
• path determination
• IP address resolution

5. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

• The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
• The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
• The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
• The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)

• recognizes streams of bits
• identifies the network layer protocol
• makes the connection with the upper layers identifies the source and destination applications
• insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
• determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

7. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?

• MAC sublayer
• Physical layer
• Logical Link
• Control sublayer
• Network layer

8. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?

• A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
• A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
• A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
• A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?

• header field – preamble and stop frame
• data field – network layer packet
• data field – physical addressing
• trailer field – FCS and SoF

10. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)

• Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
• A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
• A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
• A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11. Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

• Collisions can decrease network performance.
• It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
• Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
• CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

12. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?

• application
• physical
• transport
• internet
• data link
• network access

13. What is the primary purpose of ARP?

• translate URLs to IP addresses
• resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
• provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
• convert internal private addresses to external public addresses

14. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

• A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

16. Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)

• dynamically assigned
• copied into RAM during system startup
• layer 3 address
• contains a 3 byte OUI
• 6 bytes long
• 32 bits long

17. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)

• reduction in cross-talk
• minimizing of collisions
• support for UTP cabling
• division into broadcast domains
• increase in the throughput of communications

18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)

• coaxial thicknet
• copper UTP
• coaxial thinnet
• optical fiber
• shielded twisted pair

19. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

• 85
• 90
• BA
• A1
• B3
• 1C

20. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?

• the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
• the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
• any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
• those that began transmitting at the same time

21. Refer to the exhibit. What command was executed on a host computer to produce the results shown?

• route PRINT
• arp -a
• arp -d
• netstat
• telnet

source : nho.cc

1. Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?

• It sends LSP packets to Routers B and C.
• It sends LSP packets to all routers in the network.
• It sends Hello packets to all routers in the network.
• It sends information about its directly connected neighbors to Routers A and E.
• It sends information about its directly connected neighbors to all routers in the network.
• It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

2. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)

• 30 second timer expires
• whenever the network topology changes
• immediately after the Bellman-Ford algorithm has run
• immediately after the DUAL FSM has built the topology database
• upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

3. What is the final step in the link state routing process?

• successors are placed into the routing table
• SPF computes best path to each destination network
• LSPs are flooded to all neighbors to converge the network
• DUAL algorithm is run to find best path to destination networks

4. What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)

• each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors
• all routers in the area have identical link state databases
• LSPs use the reserved multicast address of 224.0.0.10 to reach neighbors
• routing loops are prevented by running the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL)
• Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP) is the protocol used by for the delivery and reception of LSPs

5. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?

• hop count
• uptime of the route
• cost of the link
• a list of all the routing protocols in use

6. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?

• splitting routing topologies into smaller areas
• assigning lower process priorities to route calculations
• using update timers to restrict routing updates
• strict split horizon rules to reduce routing table entries

7. To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)

• use automatic summarization to reduce the size of routing tables
• build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link
• flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database
• discover neighbors and establish adjacencies using the hello packet sent at regular intervals
• construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network
• use the DUAL FSM to select efficient, loop-free paths, and insert routes into the routing table

8. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?

• updates triggered by network changes
• updates sent at regular intervals
• updates sent only to directly connected neighbors
• updates that include complete routing tables

9. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?

• Each router builds a simple view of the network based on hop count.
• Routers flood the network with LSAs to discover routing loops.
• Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.
• Routers use hold-down timers to prevent routing loops.

10. What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)

• The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.
• Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological database.
• Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
• After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.
• Link-state protocols require less router processor power than distance vector protocols.

11. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?

• DUAL
• Dijkstra
• Bellman-Ford
• Diffie-Hellman

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?

• BOS -> ATL because this path is the least hops
• BOS -> ATL because this path is highest cost
• BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost
• traffic would load balance across all links

13. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?

• routing table
• adjacency table
• link-state database
• neighbor table
• topology database

14. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)

• RIPv1
• RIPv2
• IS-IS
• BGP
• EIGRP
• OSPF

15. When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?

• every 30 seconds
• every 180 seconds
• after the holddown time expires
• when a link goes up or down
• when a routing loop occurs

16. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?

• sends out its updated routing table to both ORL and BOS routers
• sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS
• queries BOS to see if it has a better route
• only adds it to the local routing table and performs no other actions

17. A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?

• RIP version 2
• IGRP
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• BGP

18. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?

• floods the LSP to neighbors
• calculates the SPF algorithm
• runs the Bellman-Ford algorithm
• computes the best path to the destination network

19. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?

• A and E
• B and C
• A, B, C, and E
• C only

source : nho.cc

1. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)

the number of routers between the source and destination device
the IP address of the router nearest the destination device
**the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source
**whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network
the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond

2. What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by medium- to large-sized businesses? (Choose three.)

DSL
cable modem
Ethernet
**metro Ethernet
**T1
**T3

3. What is the maximum T1 transmission speed?

56 kbps
128 kbps
**1.544 Mbps
2.4 Mbps

4. Which of the following start the test of destination reachability?

**echo request issued by source
echo reply issued by source
echo request issued by destination
echo reply issued by destination

5. Which statement describes a function of a Tier 1 ISP?

**peers with other similarly sized ISPs to form the global Internet backbone
uses the services of Tier 3 ISPs to connect to the global Internet backbone
pays Tier 2 ISPs for transit services to connect across continents
limits the offered services to small geographic areas

6. At which point do individuals and small businesses connect directly to the ISP network to obtain Internet access?

**at a POP
at an IXP
at a Metro Ethernet link
on the ISP extranet

7.What information is contained in the numbered RFCs maintained by the IETF?

the rules for acceptable use of websites and e-mail
the descriptions of various hardware components that connect to the Internet
**the specifications and rules for how devices communicate over an IP network
the standards for cabling and wiring for local Ethernet networks

8. Which network support services team is responsible for testing a new customer connection and for monitoring the ongoing operation of the link?”

customer service
help desk
**network operations
on-site installation

9. Which network support services team identifies whether the client site has existing network hardware and circuits installed?

customer service
help desk
network operations
**planning and provisioning

10. Which ISP network support systems team will typically contact the customer once a new circuit is ready and guide the customer in setting up passwords and other account information?

**help desk
customer service
network operations center
on-site installation team
planning and provisioning

11. What feature allows network devices to be scalable?

a fixed number of interfaces
ease of repair
**modularity
low maintenance requirements
low cost

12. Which command generated this output?

1 12.0.0.2 4 msec 4 msec 4 msec
2 23.0.0.3 20 msec 16 msec 16 msec
3 34.0.0.4 16 msec 18 msec 16 msec
**Router# traceroute 34.0.0.4
Router# nslookup 34.0.0.4
Router# ping 34.0.0.4
Router# telnet 34.0.0.4

13. Which network utility helps determine the location of network problems and identifies routers that packets travel across?

ping
ipconfig
**traceroute
ixp

14. What interconnects the Internet backbone?

gateway routers
**IXPs
POPs
satellite dishes

15. What units are used to measure Internet bandwidth?

**bits per second
bytes per second
hertz
megabytes per second
packets per second

16. The IT manager of a medium-sized business wishes to house the company-owned web servers in a facility that offers round-the-clock controlled access, redundant power, and high-bandwidth Internet access. Which ISP service will fulfill this need?

web hosting
planning and provisioning
application hosting
**equipment colocation
Tier 1 ISP services

17. What is the purpose of an RFC?

to provide the connection point for multiple ISPs to the Internet
**to document the development and approval of an Internet standard
to connect a business to an ISP
to provide data communication services to ISP customers
to monitor network performance and connection status of ISP clients

18. When did the Internet become available for use by businesses and consumers?

1979
1984
**1991
1999
2000

[learn-ccna.com]
19. What was the original purpose of the Internet?

voice communication
marketing
**research
commerce

20. What three support service teams are commonly found within an ISP? (Choose three.)

**help desk
computer support
application readiness
**network operations center
**planning and provisioning
implementation and documentation

2. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)
• used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops
• prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
• allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown
• limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
• prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was learned
• permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down Network

3. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
• *R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

4. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
• The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
• The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
• ADC
• ABC
• It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
• It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1

7. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router.
• All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch.
• Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
• Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column.
• An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router.
• Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.

8. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
• Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

9. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• They do not work well in networks that require special heirarchical designs.
• They are aware of the complete network topology.
• They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
• They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
• They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
• They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.

10. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
• Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
• Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

11. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
All passwords are encrypted.
• Only Telnet sessions are encrypted.
• Only the enable password is encrypted.
• Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted.
• Enable and console passwords are encrypted.

12. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?
• The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table.
• The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when load balancing.

13. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
• All routing protocols use the same metrics.
• EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
• Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
• The larger metric generally represents the better path.

14. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
• D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0
• O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0
• R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0
• S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

15. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
• The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
• The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
• The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
• The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

16. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
• D, SWH-2
• A, B, D
• SWH-1, SWH-2
• B, D
• SWH-1, A, B
• A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to determine why router JAX has no OSPF routes in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. From the JAX router, the administrator is able to ping its connected interfaces and the Fa0/1 interface of the ORL router but no other router interfaces. What is a logical step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
• Reboot the routers.
• Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.
• Check to see if the cable is loose between ORL and JAX.
• Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.
• Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.

18. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
• Perform the POST routine.
• Search for a backup IOS in ROM.
• Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
• Load the running-config file from RAM.
• Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

19. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
• 172.16.0.0/8
• 172.16.0.0/10
• 172.16.0.0/13
• 172.16.0.0/20
• 172.16.0.0/24

20. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
• The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.
• The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork
assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
• The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for
Serial0 of Router2.
• The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

21. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. • The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
• The address is in the wrong subnet.
• 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.
• The default gateway is incorrect.
• The host address and default gateway are swapped.

22. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
• Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.
• Split horizon will prevent Router4 from forwarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires.
• Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table.
• Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
• The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
• Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
• The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
• Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
• Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
• No default route has been configured.

24. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?
• 198.18.0.0/16
• 198.18.48.0/21
• 198.18.32.0/22
• 198.18.48.0/23
• 198.18.49.0/23
• 198.18.52.0/22

25. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
• clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires
• prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad
• removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires
• limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be
discarded
• used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers

26. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
• Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
• Paris(config)# router eigrp
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0

27. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
• It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more then 10 routes.
• It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.
• It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that
are down.
• It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.

28. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)
• the reported distance to network 172.16.1.0 is 2172416
• 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.9 are feasible successors
• neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled
• router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces
• all interfaces shown on Router3 are in the passive state and will not send EIGRP advertisements

29. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?
• triggered updates
• poison reverse
• holddown timers
• split horizon

30. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
• used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets
• used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers
• used to request more information about any entry in the BDR
• used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

31. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
• The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that
route in the routing table.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others
in reserve in case the primary route goes down.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send
packets out multiple exit interfaces.

32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
• 172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1
• 172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9
• 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
• 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1

33. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
• Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
• Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544.
• Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable.
• Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

34. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
• DRAM – loads the bootstrap
• RAM – stores the operating system
• Flash – executes diagnostics at bootup
• NVRAM – stores the configuration file
• ROM – stores the backup configuration file
• POST – runs diagnostics on hardware modules

35. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command.
How will this route appear in the routing table?
• C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
• S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

36. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6

37. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
• All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
• Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
• The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
• A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.

38. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
• OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
• RIP does not support classless routing.
• EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
• EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors.
• RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
• OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table when a successor route goes down.

39. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
• The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.
• DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
• Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.
• Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.

40. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
• Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
• The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boudaries and should be summarized.
• The static route will not work correctly.
• *Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

41. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip

42. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled “?” in the graphic? (Choose three.)
• DCE
• CSU/DSU
• LAN switch
• modem
• hub

43. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? Choose three.)
• network address
• loopback address
• autonomous system number
• subnet mask
• wildcard mask
• area ID

44. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router.
• The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.
• The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.
• The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.

45. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router
commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

46. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route
to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next
step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
• Enter default routes in R1 and R2.
• Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.
• Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a next-hop address.
• Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration.

47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
• Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network

48. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency?Choose two.)
• The routers must elect a designated router.
• The routers must agree on the network type.
• The routers must use the same dead interval.
• The routers must exchange link state requests.
• The routers must exchange database description packets.

49. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
• It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.
• It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
• It is the metric, which is cost.
• It is the administrative distance.

50. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
• static route to 10.1.0.0/22
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/23
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/24
• 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1

51. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 64.100.0.0/16
• 128.107.0.0/16
• 172.16.40.0/24
• 192.168.1.0/24
• 192.168.2.0/24

52. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
• packet switching
• microsegmentation
• domain name resolution
• path selection
• flow control

53. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
• tests Layer 2 connectivity
• provides a layer of security
• operates a OSI layers 2 and 3
• enabled by default on each interface
• used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues
• provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

54Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?
• RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.
• EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric.

55. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
• As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
• If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.
• If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
• The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
• EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
• EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.

56. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
• OSPF interval timers mismatch
• gateway of last resort not redistributed
• interface network type mismatch
• no loopback interface configured
• administrative distance mismatch
• inconsistent authentication configuration

57. What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database?
• learn about directly connected networks
• send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies
• choose successors and feasible successors to populate the topology table
• flood LSPs to all neighbors informing them of all known networks and their link states

source : ccna-answers

2. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
• It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.
• It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
• It is the metric, which is cost.
• It is the administrative distance.

3. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
• Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
• Paris(config)# router eigrp
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0

4. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
• tests Layer 2 connectivity
• provides a layer of security
• operates a OSI layers 2 and 3
• enabled by default on each interface
• used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues
• provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

5. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)
• the reported distance to network 172.16.1.0 is 2172416
• 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.9 are feasible successors
• neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled.
• router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces.
• all interfaces shown on Router3 are in the passive state and will not send EIGRP advertisements

6. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
• OSPF interval timers mismatch
• gateway of last resort not redistributed
• interface network type mismatch
• no loopback interface configured
• administrative distance mismatch
• inconsistent authentication configuration

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
• The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
• Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
• The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
• Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
• Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
• No default route has been configured.

8. Refer to the exhibit. The ORL router is unable to form a neighbor relationship with the JAX router. What is a possible cause of this problem?
• Router JAX has the wrong autonomous-system number.
• The command network 192.168.2.0 is missing from the EIGRP configuration on the JAX router.
• Automatic summarization is not disabled on the JAX router.
• Router JAX has the wrong IP address on the Fa0/1 interface.

9. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
• All routing protocols use the same metrics.
• EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
• Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
• The larger metric generally represents the better path.

10. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)
• used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops
• prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
• allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown
• limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
• prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was learned
permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down network

11. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
• D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0
• O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0
• R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0
• S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

12. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router.
• The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.
• The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.
• The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.

13. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
• The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
• The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
• The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
• The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

14. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
• network address
• loopback address
• autonomous system number
• subnet mask
• wildcard mask
• area ID

15. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
• The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.

16. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled “?” in the graphic? (Choose three.)
• DCE
• CSU/DSU
• LAN switch
• Modem
• hub

17. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
• As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
• If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.
• If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
• The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
• EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
• EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.

18. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
• The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.
• The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
• The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2.
• The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 64.100.0.0/16
• 128.107.0.0/16
• 172.16.40.0/24
• 192.168.1.0/24
• 192.168.2.0/24

20. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
• Enter default routes in R1 and R2.
• Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.
• Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a next-hop address.
• Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration.

21. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
• D, SWH-2
• A, B, D
• SWH-1, SWH-2
• B, D
• SWH-1, A, B
• A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2

22. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
• Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

23. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• A(config)# no router rip

24. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
• Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network

25. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
• The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.
• DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
• Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.
• Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.

26. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1

27. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
• static route to 10.1.0.0/22
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/23
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/24
• 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1

28. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
• Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.
• Split horizon will prevent Router4 from fowarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires.
• Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table.
• Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.

29. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

30. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
• Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
• Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

31. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
• The packet will be dropped.
• The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
• The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
• The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.

32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
• 172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1
• 172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9
• 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
• 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1

33. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
• C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
• S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

34. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
• Perform the POST routine.
• Search for a backup IOS in ROM.
• Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
• Load the running-config file from RAM.
• Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

35. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
• It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more then 10 routes.
• It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.
• It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down.
• It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.

36. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
• All passwords are encrypted.
• Only Telnet sessions are encrypted.
• Only the enable password is encrypted.
• Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted.
• Enable and console passwords are encrypted.

37. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?
• 198.18.0.0/16
• 198.18.48.0/21
• 198.18.32.0/22
• 198.18.48.0/23
• 198.18.49.0/23
• 198.18.52.0/22

38. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
• All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
• Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
• The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
• A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.

39. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6

40. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?
• The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table.
• The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when load balancing.

41. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
• 172.16.0.0/8
• 172.16.0.0/10
• 172.16.0.0/13
• 172.16.0.0/20
• 172.16.0.0/24

42. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
• clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires.
• prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad.
• removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires
• limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded.
• used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers

43. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
• The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
• The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

44. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

45. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
• The routers must elect a designated router.
• The routers must agree on the network type.
• The routers must use the same dead interval.
• The routers must exchange link state requests.
• The routers must exchange database description packets

46. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
• Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
• The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boudaries and should be summarized.
• The static route will not work correctly.
• Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

47. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router.
• All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch.
• Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
• Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column.
• An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router.
• Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.

48. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
• used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets
• used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers
• used to request more information about any entry in the BDR
• used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

50. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?
• RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.
• EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric.

51. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to figure out why BOS does not have the 10.0.0.0/24 network in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF in area 0. The links between the routers are operational and the administrator is able to ping between all router interfaces. What is a logical next step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
• Reboot the routers.
• Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.
• Check to see if the cable is loose between BOS and JAX.
• Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.
• Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.

52. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?
• triggered updates
• poison reverse
• holddown timers
• split horizon

53. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
• DRAM -loads the bootstrap
• RAM -stores the operating system
• Flash -executes diagnostics at bootup
• NVRAM -stores the configuration file
• ROM -stores the backup configuration file
• POST -runs diagnostics on hardware modules

54. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
• packet switching
• microsegmentation
• domain name resolution
• path selection
• flow control

55. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
• ADC
• ABC
• It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
• It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails.

56. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
• Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
• Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544.
• Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable.
• Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

57. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• They do not work well in networks that require special heirarchical designs.
• They are aware of the complete network topology.
• They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
• They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
• They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
• They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.

58. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
• OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
• RIP does not support classless routing.
• EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
• EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors.
• RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
• OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table when a successor route goes down.

source : ccna-answers

1. Refer to the exhibit. What does the “O*E2″ from the “O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0″ line represent?
• an external OSPF route that will not increment in cost.

2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
• 1786

3. What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
• area id
• hello interval
• network type4. What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
• designated router
• backup designated router

5. What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
• bandwidth6. A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?
• Routes for connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.7. Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?
• B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of sommands will cause OSPF to be enabled to send and receive packets for any R1 interface in the exhibited subnets?
• R1(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

9. Refer to the exhibit. What does the “2″ stand for in the router ospf 2 statement?
• The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.

10. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?
• The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.

11. Refer to the exhibit. What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocols command?
• B(config)# router ospf 1B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5

12. Refer to the exhibit. How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?
• 6

13. What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?
• 110

14. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR. What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A?
• A(config)# interface fa0/0
   A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
   D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.

15. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
• 1787

16. What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?
• 192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24

17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps must the administrator take to accomplish this?
• nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1

18. Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?
• A FULL adjacency is formed.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)
• DR for network 192.168.1.200
• BDR for network 192.168.1.204

20. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?
• OSPF hello or dead timers do not match

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?
• RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
   RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
   RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate

22. Refer to the exhibit. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?
• There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

23. Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)
• Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.
• Elections are required in non-broadcast multiaccess networks.

24. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)
• Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.

25. Refer to the exhibit. What must be received between neighbors to prevent the dead time that is shown in the exhibit from reaching zero?
• hello packets

source :cisco-academy-programs.blogspot.com

1. Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?
• It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

2. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)
• whenever the network topology changes
• upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

3. What is the final step in the link state routing process?
• SPF computes best path to each destination network

4. What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)
• each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighborsall routers in the area have identical link state databases.

5. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?
• cost of the link

6. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
• splitting routing topologies into smaller areas

7. To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)
• build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link.
• flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database.
• construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network.

8. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
• updates triggered by network changes

9. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
• Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.

10. What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
• Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
• After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.

11. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
• Dijkstra

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?
• BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost

13. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?
• link-state database

14. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)
• IS-IS
• OSPF

15. When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?
• when a link goes up or down

16. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
• sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS

17. A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?
• OSPF

18. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?
• floods the LSP to neighbors

19. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?
• B and C

source :cisco-academy-programs.blogspot.com

1. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?
• The router will have to perform recursive lookups to forward a packet destined for 192.168.2.213/24.
• The parent route for these networks was removed from the routing table.
• A route to 192.168.0.0/25 would be classified as a supernet route for the routes listed in the routing table.
• All of the routes listed are network routes. 

2. Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next?
• searches for a default route to forward the packet
• drops the packet since the static route does not have an exit interface
• performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet
• sends a request to neighboring routers for the location of the 128.107.0.0 network 
 
3. Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?
• 172.16.0.0/16
• 172.16.0.0/24
• 172.16.0.0/30
• 172.16.1.0/16

4. The following entry is displayed in the routing table:
• R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1
• What type of route is this?
• a level 1 parent route
• a level 1 supernet route
• a level 1 ultimate network route
• a level 2 child route
• a level 2 ultimate child route 
 
5. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of 172.16.0.0/24 will not be dropped?
• issue the ip default-network command
• use a classful routing protocol such as RIPv1
• enable either OSPF or ISIS as the routing protocol
• issue the ip classless command
• do nothing, ip classless is on by default 

6. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
• drop the packet
• forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.0
• forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.64
• use the default route 
 
7. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6
• 7
• 8 
 
8. Refer to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do with a packet destined for host 172.16.4.234?
• drop the packet
• send packet out Serial 0/0/1
• send packet to network 0.0.0.0
• send packet out FastEthernet 0/0 
 
9. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?
• EIGRP is being used
• There is at least one parent and one child route
• 192.168.2.0, 192.168.3.0, and 192.168.4.0 networks are child routes
• Traffic going to 172.16.3.0 will be directed to s 0/0/1 
 
10. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 has been issued the ip classless command. What happens to packets destined to host 172.16.3.10?
• they are dropped
• sent to default gateway
• forward out interface Serial0/0/1
• forward out interface FastEthernet 0/0 
 
11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined for servers on the 172.16.254.0 network are being dropped by Router2. What command should the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent out the gateway of last resort, Serial 0/0/1?
• ip classless
• A router has the following entries in its routing table:
• S 192.168.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.128.2
• O 192.168.0.0/25 [110/2175] via 172.16.1.1, 00:02:15, FastEthernet0/1
• D 192.168.0.0/25 [90/22455] via 172.16.2.2, 00:12:15, Serial0/0/0
• R 192.168.0.0/26 [120/2] via 172.16.3.3, 00:00:15, Serial0/0/1 
 
12. The router receives a packet that is destined for a host with the address 192.168.0.58. Which route would this router use to forward the packet?
• router use to forward the packet?
• the static route
• the OSPF route
• the EIGRP route
• the RIP route 
 
13.What determines if the router implements a classless route lookup process?
• Child routes are present in the routing table.
• A classless routing protocol has been configured on the router.
• The command ip classless is enabled on the router.
• Multiple routes with different masks to the same destination are in the routing table.
• Routing table entries have a next-hop IP address and an exit interface for each child route. 
 
14. What occurs when no ip classless is implemented on the router?
• The router will only support classful IP addressing.
• The router will only support classful routing protocols.
• The router will use a default route, if present, when a matching route is not found in the routing table.
• The router will assume it has knowledge of all subnets in the network and will not search beyond child
• routes for a better match. 
 
15. Refer to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on router E. Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for default routing behavior. Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in the routing table will be searched first and why?
• 172.16.1.0/25 because it is the first ultimate route
• 0.0.0.0/0 because it is the lowest network number
• 172.16.0.0/25 because it is the first level 1 route
• 172.18.0.0/15 because it has the shortest mask 
 
16. A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
• the route with the smallest AD
• the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination
• the route with the highest bandwidth
• the route with the best combination of AD and lowest cost 
 
17. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the 172.16.0.0/24 network?
• 0.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.255 
 
18. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the network 172.16.1.4?
• RIPv1
• RIPv2
• EIGRP
• OSPF 
 
19. A route to a destination network is learned from multiple routing protocols. What is used by a Cisco router to select the preferred route to the destination that will be installed in the routing table?
• metric
• route prefix
• update timer
• administrative distance

source :cisco-academy-programs.blogspot.com/

1. A network administrator has been told that the company IP address infrastructure must adhere to RFC 1918. What three IP address ranges from RFC 1918 could the administrator use on the network? (Choose three.)
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 172.16.0.0/12
• 192.168.0.0/16

2. Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
• VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What effect will the commands that are shown have on RIP updates for Router1?
• Only version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit?
• The no auto-summary has not been configured on this router.

5. What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose two.)
• RIP version 2 supports VLSM.
• RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.

6. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 is configured as the routing protocol for the network that is shown. The following commands are used on each router:
• router rip
   network 10.0.0.0
   network 172.16.0.0

7. A network administrator installed four new routers that are running RIPv2. Router1 is a boundary router in the RIPv2 network and has a default route configured. Once the network has converged, the network administrator enters Router1(config-router)# default-information originate on Router1. How will this affect the network?
• propagates the default route to all routers in the network

8. Refer to the exhibit. A technician needs to add a new loopback interface to test routing functionality and network design. The technician enters the following set of commands on the router:
Sanford(config)# interface loopback1
Sanford(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.62 255.255.255.252
• The network address for Loopback1 overlaps with an already configured interface address.

9. What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?
• 15 hops
|
10. What are two functions of the network command used when configuring routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• identifies which networks will be included in the routing updates
• determines which interfaces can send and receive routing updates

11. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is configured on router B?
• A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.

12. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the 192.168.1.32/27 network?
• Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.

13. RIPv2 is the configured routing protocol on the routers in a network. The command Router(config-router)# no version 2 is entered on the routers. What effect does entering this command have on routing updates?
• Version 1 and 2 updates will be received and the version 2 updates will not be sent.

14. How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
• They both use hop count as a metric.
• They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
• They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited network contains a mixture of Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The command debug ip rip was entered on the JAX router. All routers are running the same version of RIP. Router CHI and Router ORL are not able to reach the 192.168.1.16/28 network. What is a possible solution to this problem?
• Configure RIPv2 on routers.

16. What field was added to the RIP message header by RFC 1723 to add support for VLSM and CIDR?
• Subnet mask

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which command on which router will allow Router1 to learn about the 192.168.0.0/20 network?
• Router2(config-router)# version 2

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
• Router1 will install a route to 192.168.0.0/20
• Router2 will not install a route to 192.168.16.0/20

19. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIP version 2. JAX is configured to just advertise the 10.0.0.0/24 network. CHI is configured to advertise the 172.16.0.0/16 network. A network administrator enters the commands shown in the exhibit. What changes will occur in this network?
• The CHI router will install a route to the 192.168.0.0/16 network in its routing table.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the 192.168.16.0/28 network?
• Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0

21. When this configuration is complete, users on the LAN of each router are unable to access the remote LANs. Why?
• RIPv1 is unable to route to discontiguous subnets of a major network.

source :cisco-academy-programs.blogspot.com