an external OSPF route that will not increment in cost.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?

1786

What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

area id

hello interval

network type

What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)

designated router

backup designated router

What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?

bandwidth

A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?

Routes for connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.

Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?

B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of sommands will cause OSPF to be enabled to send and receive packets for any R1 interface in the exhibited subnets?

R1(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

Refer to the exhibit. What does the “2″ stand for in the router ospf 2 statement?

The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?

The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.

Refer to the exhibit. What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocols command?

B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5

Refer to the exhibit. How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?

6

What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?

110

Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR.
What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A?

A(config)# interface fa0/0

A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255

D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?

1787

What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?

192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps must the administrator take to accomplish this?

nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1

Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?

A FULL adjacency is formed.

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)

DR for network 192.168.1.200

BDR for network 192.168.1.204

Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?

OSPF hello or dead timers do not match.

Refer to the exhibit. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?

RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate

Refer to the exhibit. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?

There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)

Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.

Elections are required in non-broadcast multiaccess networks.

Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)

Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.

HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.

Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.

Refer to the exhibit. What must be received between neighbors to prevent the dead time that is shown in the exhibit from reaching zero?

hello packets

2. Refer to the exhibit. Switches SW1 and SW2 are interconnected via a trunk link but failed to exchange VLAN information. The network administrator issued the show vtp status command to troubleshoot the problem. On the basis of the output provided, what could be done to fix the problem?
• The switches must be interconnected via access link.
• Switch SW2 must be configured as a VTP client.
• Both switches must be configured as VTP clients.
• Both switches must be configured with the same VTP revision number.
• The switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name.

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
• If this switch is added to an established network, the other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain will consider their own
• VLAN information to be more recent than the VLAN information advertised by this switch.
• This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
• This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
• This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
• This switch is configured to allows the network manager to maximize bandwidth by restricting traffic to specific network devices.

4. Which two statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)
• Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information.
• Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.
• Transparent mode switches pass any VLAN management information that they receive to other switches.
• Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes that are received from other switches.
• Transparent mode switches originate updates about the status of their VLANS and inform other switches about that status.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Switch2 was previously used in a lab environment and has been added to the production network in server mode. The lab and production networks use the same VTP domain name, so the network administrator made no configuration changes to Switch2 before adding it to the production network. The lab domain has a higher revision number. After Switch2 was added to the production network, many computers lost network connectivity. What is the quickest way to solve the problem?
• Reset the revision number on Switch2 with either the delete VTP command or by changing the domain name and then changing it back.
• Change Switch1 to transparent VTP mode to reclaim all VLANs in vlan.dat, and then change back to server mode.
• Change Switch2 to client mode so the VLANs will automatically repopulate.
• Re-enter all appropriate VLANs, except VLAN 1, manually on Switch1 so that they repropagate throughout the network.

6. What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?
• A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.
• A port on a switch in the management domain has changed to blocking mode.
• A five-minute update timer has elapsed.
• The advertisement revision number has reached n+1.

7. Which two statements describe VTP client mode operation. (Choose two.)
• can add VLANs of local significance only
• can only adopt VLAN management changes
• can create and adopt updated VLAN management information
• can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes
• can add VLANs to domain
• cannot add VLANs

8 Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
• VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
• VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
• A switch configured for VTP can belong to more than one VTP domain.
• VTP dynamically communicates VLAN additions, deletions and modifications to all switches in the same VTP domain.
• VTP advertisements are passed over access links to other switches.

9. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the VTP domain are new. Switch SW1 is configured as a VTP server, switches SW2 and SW4 are configured as VTP clients, and switch SW3 is configured in VTP transparent mode. Which switch or switches receive VTP updates and synchronize their VLAN configuration based on those updates?
• All switches receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.
• Only switch SW2 receives updates and synchronizes VLAN information.
• SW3 and SW4 receive updates, but only switch SW4 synchronizes VLAN information.
• Only switches SW3 and SW4 receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.

10. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be learned from the output provided?
• It verifies the configured VTP password.
• It verifies the VTP domain is configured to use VTP version 2.
• It verifies VTP advertisements are being exchanged.
• It verifies the VTP domain name is V1.

11. Which statement is true about the VTP pruning process?
• VTP pruning automatically updates all switches within the VTP domain with VLAN information.
• VTP pruning updates all switches within the VTP domain with information about pruning-eligible VLANs.
• VTP pruning updates all switches within the VTP domain with information about pruning-ineligible VLANs.
• VTP pruning prevents flooded traffic from crossing trunk links to switches that do not need to process the flood traffic.

12. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
• VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
• Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.
• VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
• There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches.
• Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.

13. What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?
• It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.
• It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.
• It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.
• It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.
• It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.

14. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)
• revision number
• domain name
• pruning
• mode
• domain password
• version number

15. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network participate in the same VTP domain. What happens when the new switch SW2 with a default configuration and revision number of 0 is inserted in the existing VTP domain Lab Network?
• The switch operates as a VTP client.
• switch operates in VTP transparent mode.
• The switch operates as a VTP server and deletes the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.
• The switch operates as a VTP server, but does not impact the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 is in VTP server mode. Switches S2 and S3 are in client mode. An administrator accidentally disconnects the cable from F0/1 on S2. What will the effect be?
• S2 loses all VLANs until the cable is reconnected.
• S2 automatically transitions to VTP transparent mode.
• S2 does not send a VTP request advertisement unless it is reloaded.
• S2 automatically sends a VTP request advertisement to 172.17.99.11 when the cable is reconnected.

17. Which two statements are true about the implementation of VTP? (Choose two.)
• Switches must be connected via trunks.
• The VTP domain name is case sensitive.
• Transparent mode switches cannot be configured with new VLANs.
• The VTP password is mandatory and case sensitive.
• Switches that use VTP must have the same switch name.

PPP
SLIP
xxxHDLC
Frame Relay

2. What is a characteristic feature of a worm?

xxxexploits a known vulnerability
attaches to executable programs
masquerades as a legitmate program
lies dormant until triggered by an event, time, or date

3.An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?

When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
xxxIPv4 is incompatible with RIPng

4.Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of a security policy?

xxxIt creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
It should not need altering once it is implemented.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.
It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumvention of security measures

5. Which characteristic of VPN technology prevents the contents of data communications from being read by unauthorized parties?

QoS
latency
reliability
xxxconfidentiality

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring Frame Relay on router HQ. It is desired that each Frame Relay PVC between the routers be in a separate subnet. Which two commands on HQ will accomplish this task for the connection to R1? (Choose two.)

HQ(config)# interface S0/0/0
HQ(config)# interface S0/0/0.1 multipoint
xxxHQ(config)# interface S0/0/0.1 point-to-point
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface dlci 103
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface dlci 301
xxxHQ(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 301 broadcast

7. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are directly connected over a point-to-point serial link. Router1 initiates a PPP session with Router2. Which statement is true based on the configuration?

The password is sent in clear text.
The routers are unable to authenticate.
The username and password are sent encrypted.
xxxA hash value of the username and password are sent.

8. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?

Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
xxxThe router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.

9. Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)

xxxThere is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
xxxOne access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted.
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
The term “inbound” refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?

a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
xxxa manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses

11. A company uses a PVC with a committed information rate (CIR) of 128 kb/s and a committed burst information rate (CBIR) of 64 kb/s. The link is used to periodically send updates at a rate of 144 kb/s. What will happen to the update traffic?

The traffic will be sent, but the company will be charged a penalty.
The traffic will be sent using the additional CBIR and will be guaranteed delivery.
xxxThe traffic will be dropped at the CO for exceeding the committed information rate.
The traffic will be sent, but the burst traffic will be marked for discard if congestion is encountered.

12. Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?

The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.
STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.
xxxPort Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.
S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.

13. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?

Configure DHCP and static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
Configure static NAT for all ten users.
xxxConfigure dynamic NAT with overload.

14. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?

application
transport
xxxnetwork
data link
physical

15. Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?

There is a Layer 2 loop.
xxxThe VTP domain names do not match.
Only one switch can be in server mode.
S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.

16. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the extended ACL when applied inbound on the S0/0/0 interface on R2?

All IP traffic will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
Both IP and Telnet traffic will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
Only Telnet traffic destined for 172.16.10.0/24 will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
xxxTelnet traffic will be permitted only during the specified days and time range. All other network traffic will be permitted any time.

17. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)

Once a good password is created, do not change it.
xxxDeliberately misspell words when creating passwords.
xxxCreate passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.
xxxUse combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.
Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.
Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.

18. Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available?

The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients.
The TCP/IP information is used by DNS clients to forward all data to the default gateway on R1 of 10.0.1.3.
The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1.
The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.

19. Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?

protocol type
xxxsource IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address

20. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what is the purpose of Inverse ARP?

to assign a DLCI to a remote peer
to disable peer requests from determining local Layer 3 addresses
to negotiate LMI encapsulations between local and remote Frame Relay peers
xxxto create a mapping of DLCI to Layer 3 addresses that belong to remote peers

21. An issue of response time has recently arisen on an application server. The new release of a software package has also been installed on the server. The configuration of the network has changed recently. To identify the problem, individuals from both teams responsible for the recent changes begin to investigate the source of the problem. Which statement applies to this situation?

Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently.
xxxIt will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.
Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.
Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.

22. What is the result when the command permit tcp 10.25.132.0 0.0.0.255 any eq smtp is added to a named access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router?

TCP traffic with a destination to the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted.
Only Telnet traffic is permitted to the 10.24.132.0/24 network
Ttraffic from 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to anywhere on using any port.
xxxTraffic using port 25 from the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to all destinations.

23. At what point in the PPP connection process does the authentication phase occur?

after NCP establishes Layer 3 parameters
xxxbefore LCP begins the link establishment process
after the initial Configure-Request message from the link initiator
after the link initiator receives a Configure-Ack message from the responder

24. An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found?

physical layer
data link layer
network layer
xxxapplication layer

25. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the Frame Relay connection?

The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
xxxA congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay connection.
The “ACTIVE” status of the Frame Relay connection indicates that the network is experiencing congestion.
Only control FECN and BECN bits are sent over the Frame Relay connection. No data traffic traverses the link.

26. A light manufacturing company wishes to replace its DSL service with a non-line-of-sight broadband wireless solution that offers comparable speeds. Which solution should the customer choose?

Wi-Fi
satellite
xxxWiMAX
Metro Ethernet

27. Refer to the exhibit. This router is being configured to use SDM, but the SDM interface of the router cannot be accessed. What is the cause of the problem?

xxxThe VTY lines are not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The username and password are not configured correctly.

28. Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider?

BE
DE
xxxCIR
CBIR

29.Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC router to the Orlando router?

DLCI 123
xxxDLCI 321
10.10.10.25
10.10.10.26
MAC address of the Orlando router

30. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?

local loop
DTE cable on router
xxxdemarcation point
demilitarized zone

31. A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.)

xxxreduced jitter
reduced costs
xxxreduced latency
the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth
the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers

32. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows “DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.3.17″. What is the problem?

The address 192.168.3.17 address is already in use by Fa0/0.
xxxThe pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is configured incorrectly.
The ip helper-address command should be used on the Fa0/0 interface.
The 192.168.3.17 address has not been excluded from the 192Network pool.

33.A network administrator is tasked with maintaining two remote locations in the same city. Both locations use the same service provider and have the same service plan for DSL service. When comparing download rates, it is noticed that the location on the East side of town has a faster download rate than the location on the West side of town. How can this be explained?

The West side has a high volume of POTS traffic.
The West side of town is downloading larger packets.
xxxThe service provider is closer to the location on the East side.
More clients share a connection to the DSLAM on the West side.

34. Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers?

ATM
Frame Relay
xxxHDLC
PPP
SDLC

35. Which additional functionality is available on an interface when the encapsulation is changed from HDLC to PPP?

flow control
error control
xxxauthentication
synchronous communication

36. When NAT is in use, what is used to determine the addresses that can be translated on a Cisco router?

access control list
routing protocol
inbound interface
ARP cache

37. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the core router devices?

They use multiport internetworking devices to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM, or X.25 over the WAN.
They provide internetworking and WAN access interface ports that are used to connect to the service provider network.
They provide termination for the digital signal and ensure connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring.
xxxThey support multiple telecommunications interfaces of the highest speed and are able to forward IP packets at full speed on all of those interfaces.

38. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?

The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
xxxThe RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.
The RIPng network command is missing from the IPv6 RIP configuration.

39. Which two protocols in combination should be used to establish a link with secure authentication between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router? (Choose two.)

HDLC
xxxPPP
xxxSLIP
PAP
CHAP

40. Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause?

improper LMI type
interface reset
PPP negotiation failure
unplugged cable

41. Which statement is true about NCP?

Link termination is the responsibility of NCP.
xxxEach network protocol has a corresponding NCP.
NCP establishes the initial link between PPP devices.
NCP tests the link to ensure that the link quality is sufficient.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request packet that enters interface S0/0/0, and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 172.16.1.5?

The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that is created by access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router.
The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by access-list 101 permit ip any any command.
xxxThe router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 command, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet.

43. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 have not received any RIP routing updates. What will fix the issue?

xxxEnable RIP authentication on R2.
Issue the ip directed-broadcast command on R2.
Change the subnet masks to 10.11.12.0/8 and 172.16.40.0/16 on R2.
Enable CDP on R2 so that the other routers will receive routing updates

44. Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?

The commands overwrite the existing Managers ACL.
xxxThe commands are added at the end of the existing Managers ACL.
The network administrator receives an error stating that the ACL already exists.
The commands will create a duplicate Managers ACL containing only the new commands being entered.

45. Which security solution has the responsibility of monitoring suspicious processes that are running on a host and that might indicate infection of Trojan horse applications?

xxxantivirus application
operating system patches
intrusion prevention system
Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance

46. Which statement is true about wildcard masks?

A wildcard mask must be created by inverting the subnet mask.
A wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask.
xxxA wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 means the address should match exactly.
A wildcard mask uses a “1″ to identify IP address bits that must be checked.

47. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem?

Use correct source file name in the command.
Verify that the TFTP server software is running.
Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup.
xxxCheck that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.

48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is creating a prototype to verify the new WAN design. However, the communication between the two routers cannot be established. Based on the output of the commands, what can be done to solve the problem?

Replace the serial cable .
Replace the WIC on RA.
xxxConfigure RA with a clock rate command.
Issue a no shutdown interface command on RB.

49. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interface commands, at which OSI layer is a fault indicated?

application
transport
network
xxxdata link
physical

50. Which type of ACL will permit traffic inbound into a private network only if an outbound session has already been established between the source and destination?

extended
xxxreflexive
standard
time-based

51. Which IEEE 802.16 broadband wireless technology allows users to connect to the ISP at speeds comparable to DSL and cable?

Wi-Fi
satellite
xxxWiMAX
Metro Ethernet

52. Which option represents a best practice for applying ACLs?

Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied inside the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces use fewer router resources.
xxxExtended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

Exploration.learn-ccna.com/

1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?

• HTML
• HTTP
• FTP
• Telnet

2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)

• applications
• dialogs
• requests
• services
• syntax

3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)

• centralized administration
• does not require specialized software
• security is easier to enforce
• lower cost implementation
• provides a single point of failure

4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?

• temporarily holds resolved entries
• used by the server to resolve names
• sent by the client to during a query
• passes authentication information between the server and client

5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?

• HTTP
• SSH
• FQDN
• DNS
• Telnet
• SMTP

6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)

• ARP
• DNS
• PPP
• SMTP
• POP
• ICMP

7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)

• acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
• requires centralized account administration.
• hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
• can be used in client-server networks.
• requires a direct physical connection between devices.
• centralized authentication is required.

8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)

• DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
• HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
• POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
• SMTP supports file sharing
• Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access

9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)

• MDA
• IMAP
• MTA
• POP
• SMTP
• MUA

10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?

• not widely available
• does not support encryption
• consumes more network bandwidth
• does not support authentication

11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)

• routes email to the MDA on other servers
• receives email from the client’s MUA
• receives email via the POP3 protocol
• passes email to the MDA for final delivery
• uses SMTP to route email between servers
• delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol

12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)

• ASP
• FTP
• HTML
• HTTP
• HTTPS
• IP

13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)

• User accounts are centralized.
• Security is difficult to enforce.
• Specialized operating system software is required.
• File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
• A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.

14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?physical

• session
• network
• presentation
• application
• transport

15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?

• 80
• 1261
• 15533
• 3912
• 65520

16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)

• scalable
• one way data flow
• decentralized resources
• centralized user accounts
• resource sharing without a dedicated server

17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?

• DHCP
• DNS
• SMB
• SMTP
• Telnet

18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)

• use daemons
• initiate data exchanges
• are repositories of data
• may upload data to servers
• listen for requests from servers

19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?

• provides segmentation of data
• provides encryption and conversion of data
• provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
• provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices

20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?

• ceases all connections to the service
• denies multiple connections to a single daemon
• suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
• uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service

source : nho.cc

1. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two)

• This is a UDP header.
• This contains a Telnet request.
• This contains a TFTP data transfer.
• The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
• This is a TCP header.

2. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?

• 0 to 255
• 256 to 1022
• 0 to 1023
• 1024 to 2047
• 49153 to 65535

3. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?

• to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
• to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
• to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
• to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
• to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order

4. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?

• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• network

5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?

• create a Layer 1 jam signal
• reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
• send a RESET bit to the host
• change the window size in the Layer 4 header

6. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?

• to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
• to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
• to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
• to synchronize window size on the server
• to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts

7. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)

• identifies the destination network
• identifies source and destination hosts
• identifies the communicating applications
• identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
• identifies the devices communicating over the local media

8. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?

• session establishment
• segment retransmit
• data transfer
• session disconnect
• Bottom of Form

9. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)

• The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
• A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
• Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
• The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
• 192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.

10. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?

• destination logical address
• source physical address
• default gateway address
• source port

11. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)

• flow control
• low overhead
• connectionless
• connection-oriented
• sequence and acknowledgements

12. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?

• sequence numbers
• session establishment
• window size
• acknowledgments

13. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?

• TCP
• IP
• UDP
• HTTP
• DNS

14. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?

• sequencing
• flow control
• acknowledgments
• source and destination

15. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?

• encapsulation
• flow control
• connectionless services
• session establishment
• numbering and sequencing
• best effort delivery

16. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?

• The packets will not be delivered.
• The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
• The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
• The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.

17. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?

• acknowledgement of data delivery
• minimal delays in data delivery
• high reliability of data delivery
• same order data delivery

18. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?

• 13
• 53
• 80
• 1024
• 1728

19. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?

• The two applications exchange data.
• TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
• UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
• The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?

• Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
• Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
• Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host2.
• Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
• Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host1.
• Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1

21. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)

• The local host is using three client sessions.
• The local host is using web sessions to a remote server.
• The local host is listening for TCP connections using public addresses.
• The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.

The local host is performing the three-way handshake with 192.168.101:1037.

source : nho.cc

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.

• /24
• /16
• /20
• /27
• /25
• /28

2. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)

• 172.16.4.127 /26
• 172.16.4.155 /26
• 172.16.4.193 /26
• 172.16.4.95 /27
• 172.16.4.159 /27
• 172.16.4.207 /27

3. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)

• NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
• Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
• Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
• Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
• IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.

4. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?

• binary adding
• hexadecimal anding
• binary division
• binary multiplication
• binary ANDing

5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?

• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is a broadcast address.
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

6. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?

• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0

7. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)

• 172.168.33.1
• 10.35.66.70
• 192.168.99.5
• 172.18.88.90
• 192.33.55.89
• 172.35.16.5

8. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?

• This is a useable host address.
• This is a broadcast address.
• This is a network address.
• This is not a valid address.

9. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?

• 172.16.0.0
• 172.16.192.0
• 172.16.192.128
• 172.16.192.160
• 172.16.192.168
• 172.16.192.176

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server’s properties to allow connectivity to the network?

• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
• IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1

11. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)

• LAN workstations
• servers
• network printers
• routers
• remote workstations
• laptops

12. Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)

• larger address space
• faster routing protocols
• data types and classes of service
• authentication and encryption
• improved host naming conventions
• same addressing scheme as IPv4

13. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?

• security
• header format simplification
• expanded addressing capabilities
• addressing simplification

14. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)

• The router will discard the packet.
• The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
• The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
• The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
• The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?

• The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
• Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
• There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
• The default gateway device is not operating.
• A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.

16. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?

• 128
• 64
• 48
• 32

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?

• The router has an incorrect gateway.
• Host A has an overlapping network address.
• Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
• Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
• NAT is required for the host A network.

18. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)

• identifies an individual device
• is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
• is altered as packet is forwarded
• varies in length
• is used to forward packets
• uses flat addressing

19. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?

• an internet
• a network
• an octet
• a radix
• Bottom of Form
• Top of Form
• Bottom of Form

20. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?

• 10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
• 10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
• 10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
• 10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
• 10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
• 10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000

21. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?

• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.252

source : nho.cc

1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)

• Network
• Transport
• Physical
• Data Link
• Session

2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?

• supports error detection
• ensures ordered arrival of data
• provides delivery to correct destination
• identifies the devices on the local network
• assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection

3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?

• No address is added.
• The logical address is added.
• The physical address is added.
• The process port number is added.

4. What device is considered an intermediary device?

• file server
• IP phone
• laptop
• printer
• switch

5.Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?

• physical
• data link
• network
• transport

6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)

• determine pathways for data
• initiate data communications
• retime and retransmit data signals
• originate the flow of data
• manage data flows
• final termination point for data flow

7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?

• the destination device on the local media
• the destination host address
• the bits that will be transferred over the media
• the source application or process creating the data

8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?

• physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
• application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
• application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
• application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
• presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

• Network A — WAN
• Network B — WAN
• Network C — LAN
• Network B — MAN
• Network C — WAN
• Network A — LAN

10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)

• allows modification of the original data before transmission
• identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
• enables consistent network paths for communication
• ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
• enables the reassembly of complete messages
• tracks delay between end devices

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?

• piping
• PDU
• streaming
• multiplexing
• encapsulation

12. What is a PDU?

• corruption of a frame during transmission
• data reassembled at the destination
• retransmitted packets due to lost communication
• a layer specific encapsulation

13. Refer to the exhibit. “Cell A” at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with “IP Phone 1″ at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device “Cell A?”

• the destination device
• an end device
• an intermediate device
• a media device

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?

• A, C, D
• B, E, G, H
• C, D, G, H, I, J
• D, E, F, H, I, J
• E, F, H, I, J

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?

• source
• end
• transfer
• intermediary

16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)

• A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
• The network is administered by a single organization.
• The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
• The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
• A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
• Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).

17. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?

• WAN
• MAN
• LAN
• WLAN

18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?

• path determination and packet switching
• data representation, encoding, and control
• reliability, flow control, and error detection
• detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
• the division of segments into packets

19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?

• manage data flows
• originate data flow
• retime and retransmit data signals
• determine pathways for data

20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?

• to identify devices on the local media
• to identify the hops between source and destination
• to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
• to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
• to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)

• define the structure of layer specific PDU’s
• dictate how to accomplish layer functions
• outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
• limit hardware compatibility
• require layer dependent encapsulations
• eliminate standardization among vendors

source : nho.cc

1. Which IEEE specification defines Wi-Fi technology?

• 802.3
• 802.5
• 802.7
• 802.11
• 802.13
• 802.15

2. What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)

• Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
• defined as placement of data frames on the media
• contention-based access is also known as deterministic
• 802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
• Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
• controlled access contains data collisions

3. Which characteristics describe carrier sense multiple access collision detect (CSMA/CD)? (Choose three.)

• reliable
• point-to-point
• nondeterministic
• connection-oriented
• collision environment
• first-come, first-served approach

4. Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)

• non-deterministic
• less overhead
• one station transmits at a time
• collisions exist
• devices must wait their turn
• token passing

5. What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)

• network layer addressing
• media sharing
• application processes
• logical topology
• intermediary device function

6. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

• The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
• Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
• Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
• Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

7. Which of the following are sublayers of the Data Link layer?

• ACL, LMC
• MAC, LAC
• MAC, LLC
• OSI, LLC

8. Which features describe the concept of Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection? (Choose two.)

• collisionless environment
• non-deterministic
• deterministic
• uses first-come, first-served approach
• uses a token to transmit data

9. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?

• 00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
• 00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
• 00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
• 00-12-3f-32-05-af

10. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

• is used as a pad for data
• identifies the source address
• identifies the destination address
• marks the end of timing information
• is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

11. What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)

• They are 48 binary bits in length.
• The consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
• They generally represented in hexadecimal format.
• They are represented as decimal values for convenience.
• They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.
• They are considered physical addresses.

12. A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?

• logical topology
• physical topology
• cable path
• wiring grid
• access topology

13. Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)

• the Layer 3 protocol selected
• the geographic scope of the network
• the PDU defined by the transport layer
• the physical layer implementation
• the number of hosts to be interconnected

14. Which three session options does PPP offer? (Choose three.)

• multilink
• multipoint connectivity
• compression
• error checking
• authentication
• fastlink

15. Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)

• Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
• Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
• Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
• Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
• Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.

16. Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)

• source MAC – PC
• source MAC – S0/0 on RouterA
• source MAC – Fa0/1 on RouterB
• source IP – PC
• source IP – S0/0 on RouterA
• source IP – Fa0/1 of RouterB

17. What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?

• define the logical topology
• provide media access control
• support frame error detection
• carry routing information for the frame

18. What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)

• The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
• The default gateway address should not be changed.
• The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
• Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
• The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

19. What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)

• network layer addressing
• media sharing
• application processes
• logical topology
• intermediary device function

20. What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?

• The nodes are physically connected.
• The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
• The media access control protocol can be very simple.
• The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

• All three networks use CSMA/CA
• None of the networks require media access control.
• Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
• Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
• Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

22. What is a function of the data link layer?

• provides the formatting of data
• provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
• provides delivery of data between two applications
• provides for the exchange data over a common local media

23. What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?

• provide routes across the internetwork
• format the data for presentation to the user
• facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
• identify the services to which transported data is associated

24. Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?

• LLC
• MAC
• HDLC
• NIC

What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

• Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
• Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
• Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
• Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
• Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data

source : nhoc.cc

1. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?

• UBAMA# configure terminal
• UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
• UBAMA(config)# line console 0
• UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
• UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

2. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?

• after a system restart
• as the commands are entered
• when logging off the system
• when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration

3. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?

• enable password class
  line console 0
  password ccna
• enable secret cisco
  enable password class
  line console 0
  password ccna
• enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
  enable password class
  line console 0
  password ccna
• enable secret cisco
  enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
  line console 0
  password 7 020507550A
• enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
  enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
  line console 0
  password 7 020507550A

4. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?

• AUX
• Ethernet
• Console
• Telnet
• SSH

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?

• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
  RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
  RouterB(config-if)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
  RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2
  RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
  RouterB(config-vty)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
  RouterB(config)# line vty 0
  RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
  RouterB(config-line)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
  RouterB(config)# line aux 0
  RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
  RouterB(config-line)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
  RouterB(config)# line aux 0
  RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
  RouterB(config-vty)# login

6. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?

• show running-config
• show startup-config
• show interfaces
• show ip route
• show version
• show memory

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)

• line configuration mode
• user executive mode
• global configuration mode
• privileged executive mode
• interface configuration mode
• enable mode

8. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?

• Router# name Fontana
• Router# hostname Fontana
• Router(config)# name Fontana
• Router(config)# hostname Fontana

9. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)

• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
• Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
• Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
• Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

10. Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?

• Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
• Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

11. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?

• NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
• NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
• NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
• NA-SW1(config-if)# description description

12. Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)

• show flash
• show NVRAM
• show startup-config
• show running-config
• show version

13. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)

• hot keys
• context-check
• context-sensitive
• structured check
• command override
• command syntax check

14. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)

• The host A is turned off.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
• The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
• The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
• The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

15. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?

• Ctrl-C
• Ctrl-P
• Ctrl-R
• Ctrl-Shift-6
• Ctrl-Z

16. The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C.

• What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?
• Ping router B S0/1 connection from router C.
• Trace the connection between router B to router C S0/1.
• Issue a show ip route command in router B to verify routing is enabled.
• Issue a show interfaces command on router C.

17. In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?

• RAM
• ROM
• Flash
• NVRAM

18. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
console

19. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

• Telnet
• Console
• AUX
• SSH

source : nho.cc

1. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?

• administrative distance of 0 and metric of 0
• administrative distance of 0 and metric of 1
• administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0
• administrative distance of 1 and metric of 1

2. What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?

• 172.16.0.0/21
• 172.16.1.0/22
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.255.248
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.252.0

3. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?

• 192.1.1.0/26 and 192.1.1.64/27
• 192.1.1.128/25
• 192.1.1.0/23 and 192.1.1.64/23
• 192.1.1.0/24
• 192.1.1.0/25
• 192.1.1.0/24 and 192.1.1.64/24

4. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?

• It indicates that there are 8 hops between this router and the 10.0.0.0 network.
• It represents the time, in milliseconds, it takes for a ping to reply when sent to the 10.0.0.0 network.
• It indicates that there are 8 subnets in the destination network to which the router can forward packets.
• It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.

5. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?

• Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.
• Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/1.
• There is no matching interface associated with network 172.16.0.0 so packets will be dropped.
• There is no matching interface associated with network 172.16.0.0 so packets will take gateway of last resort and exit out S0/2.

6. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?

• drops the packet because the destination host is not listed in the routing table
• looks up the MAC address of the S0/1/0 interface to determine the destination MAC address of the new frame
• performs a recursive lookup for the IP address of the S0/1/0 interface before forwarding the packet
• encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface

7. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?

• The rate would be negotiated by both routers.
• A rate would not be selected due to the DCE/DTE connection mismatch.
• The rate configured on the DTE determines the clock rate.
• The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?

• WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
• WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 198.18.222.0 255.255.255.255 s0/1
• WinterPark(config)# ip route 172.191.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.1
  WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
• WinterPark(config)# ip route 172.191.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.1
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0

9. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)

• ping
• show arp
• traceroute
• show ip route
• show interface
• show cdp neighbor detail

10. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?

• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
  R2(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
  R2(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
  R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
  R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
• R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.2.1
  R2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1

11. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
load

• platform
• reliability
• holdtime
• local interface

12. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)

• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
• A (config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/0/0
• B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0
• B (config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.40.1
• B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/1/0

13. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)

• A(config)# no network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
• A(config)# no ip address 10.0.0.1 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
• A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s0/0/0
• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

14. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?

• The route is removed from the table.
• The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
• The route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
• The router redirects the static route to compensate for the loss of the next hop device.

15. A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)

• The destination network no longer exists.
• The destination network is moved to a different interface on the same router.
• The path between the source and destination is upgraded with a higher bandwidth link.
• A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.
• The remote destination network interface has to be down for 15 minutes of maintenance.

16. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?

• Adding the next-hop address eliminates the need for the router to do any lookups in the routing table before forwarding a packet.
• In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.
• Using a next-hop address in a static route provides a route with a lower metric.
• In multi-access networks, using a next-hop address in a static route makes that route a candidate default route.

17. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:

Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.

What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?

• Serial0/1 is shutdown.
• There is no cable connecting the routers.
• The remote router is using serial 0/0.
• No clock rate has been set.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?

• ip route 192.168.0.0 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

19. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).

• the serial port of the router
• a modem
• a switch
• the ethernet port of the router
• a CSU/DSU device
• a DTE device

20. Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?

• CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.
• By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
• If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP information.
• Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.

21. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)

• It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
• It operates at the network layer and allows two systems to learn about each other.
• It creates a topology map of the entire network.
• It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.
• It forwards advertisements about routes for faster convergence.

22. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?

• Interface speed and duplex
• Interface MTU
• Errors
• Interface MAC address
• Interface IP address

source : nho.cc

1. Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?

• It sends LSP packets to Routers B and C.
• It sends LSP packets to all routers in the network.
• It sends Hello packets to all routers in the network.
• It sends information about its directly connected neighbors to Routers A and E.
• It sends information about its directly connected neighbors to all routers in the network.
• It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

2. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)

• 30 second timer expires
• whenever the network topology changes
• immediately after the Bellman-Ford algorithm has run
• immediately after the DUAL FSM has built the topology database
• upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

3. What is the final step in the link state routing process?

• successors are placed into the routing table
• SPF computes best path to each destination network
• LSPs are flooded to all neighbors to converge the network
• DUAL algorithm is run to find best path to destination networks

4. What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)

• each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors
• all routers in the area have identical link state databases
• LSPs use the reserved multicast address of 224.0.0.10 to reach neighbors
• routing loops are prevented by running the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL)
• Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP) is the protocol used by for the delivery and reception of LSPs

5. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?

• hop count
• uptime of the route
• cost of the link
• a list of all the routing protocols in use

6. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?

• splitting routing topologies into smaller areas
• assigning lower process priorities to route calculations
• using update timers to restrict routing updates
• strict split horizon rules to reduce routing table entries

7. To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)

• use automatic summarization to reduce the size of routing tables
• build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link
• flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database
• discover neighbors and establish adjacencies using the hello packet sent at regular intervals
• construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network
• use the DUAL FSM to select efficient, loop-free paths, and insert routes into the routing table

8. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?

• updates triggered by network changes
• updates sent at regular intervals
• updates sent only to directly connected neighbors
• updates that include complete routing tables

9. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?

• Each router builds a simple view of the network based on hop count.
• Routers flood the network with LSAs to discover routing loops.
• Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.
• Routers use hold-down timers to prevent routing loops.

10. What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)

• The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.
• Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological database.
• Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
• After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.
• Link-state protocols require less router processor power than distance vector protocols.

11. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?

• DUAL
• Dijkstra
• Bellman-Ford
• Diffie-Hellman

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?

• BOS -> ATL because this path is the least hops
• BOS -> ATL because this path is highest cost
• BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost
• traffic would load balance across all links

13. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?

• routing table
• adjacency table
• link-state database
• neighbor table
• topology database

14. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)

• RIPv1
• RIPv2
• IS-IS
• BGP
• EIGRP
• OSPF

15. When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?

• every 30 seconds
• every 180 seconds
• after the holddown time expires
• when a link goes up or down
• when a routing loop occurs

16. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?

• sends out its updated routing table to both ORL and BOS routers
• sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS
• queries BOS to see if it has a better route
• only adds it to the local routing table and performs no other actions

17. A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?

• RIP version 2
• IGRP
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• BGP

18. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?

• floods the LSP to neighbors
• calculates the SPF algorithm
• runs the Bellman-Ford algorithm
• computes the best path to the destination network

19. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?

• A and E
• B and C
• A, B, C, and E
• C only

source : nho.cc

1. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

• Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
• Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
• Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
• Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

• Network layer
• Transport layer
• Physical layer
• Application layer
• Session layer
• Data-link layer

3. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

• the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
• the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
• the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
• the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
• the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
• the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable

4. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)

• addressing
• error detection
• frame delimiting
• port identification
• path determination
• IP address resolution

5. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

• The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
• The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
• The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
• The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)

• recognizes streams of bits
• identifies the network layer protocol
• makes the connection with the upper layers identifies the source and destination applications
• insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
• determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

7. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?

• MAC sublayer
• Physical layer
• Logical Link
• Control sublayer
• Network layer

8. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?

• A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
• A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
• A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
• A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?

• header field – preamble and stop frame
• data field – network layer packet
• data field – physical addressing
• trailer field – FCS and SoF

10. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)

• Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
• A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
• A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
• A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11. Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

• Collisions can decrease network performance.
• It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
• Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
• CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

12. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?

• application
• physical
• transport
• internet
• data link
• network access

13. What is the primary purpose of ARP?

• translate URLs to IP addresses
• resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
• provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
• convert internal private addresses to external public addresses

14. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

• A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

16. Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)

• dynamically assigned
• copied into RAM during system startup
• layer 3 address
• contains a 3 byte OUI
• 6 bytes long
• 32 bits long

17. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)

• reduction in cross-talk
• minimizing of collisions
• support for UTP cabling
• division into broadcast domains
• increase in the throughput of communications

18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)

• coaxial thicknet
• copper UTP
• coaxial thinnet
• optical fiber
• shielded twisted pair

19. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

• 85
• 90
• BA
• A1
• B3
• 1C

20. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?

• the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
• the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
• any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
• those that began transmitting at the same time

21. Refer to the exhibit. What command was executed on a host computer to produce the results shown?

• route PRINT
• arp -a
• arp -d
• netstat
• telnet

source : nho.cc

1. Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?

• It sends LSP packets to Routers B and C.
• It sends LSP packets to all routers in the network.
• It sends Hello packets to all routers in the network.
• It sends information about its directly connected neighbors to Routers A and E.
• It sends information about its directly connected neighbors to all routers in the network.
• It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

2. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)

• 30 second timer expires
• whenever the network topology changes
• immediately after the Bellman-Ford algorithm has run
• immediately after the DUAL FSM has built the topology database
• upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

3. What is the final step in the link state routing process?

• successors are placed into the routing table
• SPF computes best path to each destination network
• LSPs are flooded to all neighbors to converge the network
• DUAL algorithm is run to find best path to destination networks

4. What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)

• each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors
• all routers in the area have identical link state databases
• LSPs use the reserved multicast address of 224.0.0.10 to reach neighbors
• routing loops are prevented by running the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL)
• Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP) is the protocol used by for the delivery and reception of LSPs

5. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?

• hop count
• uptime of the route
• cost of the link
• a list of all the routing protocols in use

6. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?

• splitting routing topologies into smaller areas
• assigning lower process priorities to route calculations
• using update timers to restrict routing updates
• strict split horizon rules to reduce routing table entries

7. To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)

• use automatic summarization to reduce the size of routing tables
• build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link
• flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database
• discover neighbors and establish adjacencies using the hello packet sent at regular intervals
• construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network
• use the DUAL FSM to select efficient, loop-free paths, and insert routes into the routing table

8. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?

• updates triggered by network changes
• updates sent at regular intervals
• updates sent only to directly connected neighbors
• updates that include complete routing tables

9. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?

• Each router builds a simple view of the network based on hop count.
• Routers flood the network with LSAs to discover routing loops.
• Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.
• Routers use hold-down timers to prevent routing loops.

10. What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)

• The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.
• Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological database.
• Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
• After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.
• Link-state protocols require less router processor power than distance vector protocols.

11. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?

• DUAL
• Dijkstra
• Bellman-Ford
• Diffie-Hellman

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?

• BOS -> ATL because this path is the least hops
• BOS -> ATL because this path is highest cost
• BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost
• traffic would load balance across all links

13. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?

• routing table
• adjacency table
• link-state database
• neighbor table
• topology database

14. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)

• RIPv1
• RIPv2
• IS-IS
• BGP
• EIGRP
• OSPF

15. When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?

• every 30 seconds
• every 180 seconds
• after the holddown time expires
• when a link goes up or down
• when a routing loop occurs

16. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?

• sends out its updated routing table to both ORL and BOS routers
• sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS
• queries BOS to see if it has a better route
• only adds it to the local routing table and performs no other actions

17. A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?

• RIP version 2
• IGRP
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• BGP

18. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?

• floods the LSP to neighbors
• calculates the SPF algorithm
• runs the Bellman-Ford algorithm
• computes the best path to the destination network

19. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?

• A and E
• B and C
• A, B, C, and E
• C only

source : nho.cc

1. Refer to the exhibit. What does the “O*E2″ from the O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0 line represent?

• an internal type 2 OSPF route.
• an external OSPF route at least two hops away.
• an external OSPF route from two different sources.
• an external OSPF route that will not increment in cost.
• a default route.
• The route was distributed into OSPF from a type 2 router.

2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?

• 2
• 110
• 1786
• 1.544

3. What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

• area id
• K-values
• metric value
• hello interval
• network type
• interface type

4. What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)

• root router
• backup root router
• domain router
• backup domain router
• designated router
• backup designated router

5. What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?

• bandwidth
• bandwidth and hop count
• bandwidth and reliability
• bandwidth, load, and reliablity

6. A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?

• All routes for the entire network will be present.
• Routes for connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.
• Because the SPF algorithm has not completed all calculations, no routes will be in the table.
• A summary route for all previously learned routes will automatically appear in the routing table until all LSPs have been received by the router.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?

• B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
• B(config-router)# network 10.16.1.0 0.0.0.224 area 0
• B(config-router)# network 10.16.1.0 255.255.255.224 area 0
• B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
• B(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of sommands will cause OSPF to be enabled to send and receive packets for any R1 interface in the exhibited subnets?

• R1(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0

9. Refer to the exhibit. What does the “2″ stand for in the router ospf 2 statement?

• The number 2 is the autonomous system number.
• The number 2 indicates the number of networks advertised by OSPF.
• The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.
• The number 2 indicates the priority of the OSPF process on this router.

10. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?

• Router C cannot win a DR election under any circumstances.
• If the link for interface 192.168.1.4 goes down, router B will become the new DR.
• The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.
• If a new router is added with a higher router ID than router D, it will become the DR.

11. Refer to the exhibit. What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocols command?

• B(config)# int fa0/0
  B(config-if)# router-id 192.168.1.5
• B(config)# int lo0
  B(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.5
• B(config)# router ospf 1
  B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5
• B (config)# router ospf 1
  B(config-router)# ip address 192.168.1.5

12. Refer to the exhibit. How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?

• 4
• 5
• 6
• 7
• 10

13. What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?

• 90
• 100
• 110
• 115
• 120

14. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR.
What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A?

• A(config)# interface fa0/0
• A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
• A will become the DR. D will become the BDR.
• A will become the DR. C will remain the BDR.
• D will remain the DR. A will become the BDR.
• D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.

15. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?

• 2
• 156
• 1564
• 1785
• 1787

16. What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?

• 192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.0.15/24
• 192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24
• 192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.31.0/24
• 192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24
• 192.168.16.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24

17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps must the administrator take to accomplish this?

• shut down the loop back interface
• use the OSPF router-id 192.168.100.1 command
• use the clear ip ospf process command
• nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1

18. Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?

• A FULL adjacency is formed.
• A 2WAY adjacency is formed.
• Router2 will become the DR and Router1 will become the BDR.
• Both routers will become DROTHERS.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)

• DR for network 192.168.1.200
• BDR for network 192.168.1.200
• DROTHER on 192.168.1.200
• DR for network 192.168.1.204
• BDR for network 192.168.1.204
• DROTHER on network 192.168.1.204

20. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?

• OSPF autonomous system IDs do not match.
• OSPF process IDs do not match.
• OSPF network types are identical.
• OSPF hello or dead timers do not match.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?

• RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
  RouterB(config-router)# gateway-of-last-resort 172.16.6.6
  RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0/0
• RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
  RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
  RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate
• RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
  RouterB(config-router)# default-network 172.16.6.6 0.0.0.3 area 0
  RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
• RouterB(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
  RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
  RouterB(config-router)# redistribute ip default-route

22. Refer to the exhibit. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?

• RouterB takes over as DR and RouterD becomes the BDR.
• RouterD becomes the BDR and RouterA remains the DR.
• RouterD becomes the DR and RouterA becomes the BDR.
• RouterC acts as the DR until the election process is complete.
• RouterD becomes the DR and RouterB remains the BDR.
• There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

23. Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)

• Elections are always optional.
• Elections are required in all WAN networks.
• Elections are required in point-to-point networks.
• Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.
• Elections are required in non-broadcast multiaccess networks.

24. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)

• HQ will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• Router A will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
• Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
• Remote will be BDR for 10.5.0.0/16.

25. Refer to the exhibit. What must be received between neighbors to prevent the dead time that is shown in the exhibit from reaching zero?

• any traffic through the router interfaces
• routing database updates
• hello packets
• BPDU packets

source :nho.cc